1. What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call from a user who cannot access the company web server?
• Reboot the web server.
• Replace the NIC of the computer.
• Ask the user to log off and log on again.
• Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message displays.
2. A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• trial-and-error
• divide-and-conquer
3. Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the Internet. What is the first troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer method is being used?
• Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.
• Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration.
• Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.
• Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.
4. Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home networks and large corporate networks? (Choose two.)
• having a backup ISR
• running network monitoring applications
• documenting the troubleshooting process
• keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions
• keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available
5. Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)
• hardware failure
• software configuration
• devices not able to ping
• loose cable connections
• device driver configuration
6. Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?
• ipconfig
• ipconfig /all
• ipconfig /renew
• ipconfig /release
7. What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet traversing the Internet?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• ping
• tracert
8. What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name resolution?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• tracert
9. Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• divide-and-conquer
10. A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this indicate?
• Self-diagnostics have not completed.
• The power supply is the source of the problem.
• The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.
• The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
• There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.
• The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.
11. A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the network. The UTP cable is suspected. What could be the problem?
• A straight-through cable is being used
• The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.
• The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.
• A crossover cable is being used.
12. Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
• The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.
13. Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a wireless connection to occur? (Choose three.)
• SSID
• authentication
• MD5 checksum
• antennae type
• encryption key
• MAC address filters
14. A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless access point. Which three configuration settings make it easy for hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)
• configuring NAT
• broadcasting the SSID
• using open authentication
• enabling MAC address filters
• using the default internal IP address
• using DHCP to provide IP addresses
15. Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but the wired host can. What is the problem?
• The host WEP key is incorrect.
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.
• The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.
16. Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
• The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.
17. When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an ISR provide to a client? (Choose three.)
• physical address
• MAC address
• default gateway
• static IP address
• dynamic IP address
• DNS server address
18. What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the router and the ISP? (Choose two.)
• router status page
• wireless card settings
• router operating system version
• local host operating system version
• connectivity status as indicated by LEDs
19. A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys integrated router. Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)
• Ensure the correct cable is used.
• Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.
• Ensure both devices have the same IP address.
• Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.
• Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.
• Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.
20. Network baselines should be performed in which two situations? (Choose two.)
• after the network is installed and running optimally
• after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network
• after major changes are implemented on the network
• after several computers are added to the network
• at the end of the work week
21. Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks? (Choose two.)
• identifying when the problem occurred
• determining if other users are currently logged into the computer
• updating network diagrams and documentation
• implementing the solution to the problem
• running a network baseline test
• determining the cost of fixing the problem
22. How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?
• Remote access uses a live chat feature.
• Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables if necessary.
• Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the site.
• FAQs can be consulted more easily.
23. Which two items should be added to the documentation following a troubleshooting event? (Choose two.)
• final resolution
• repetitive measures
• number of people involved in the problem
• accurate current network infrastructure diagrams
• results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps
Selasa, 28 Juli 2009
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 8
1. Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)
• fishing
• vishing
• phishing
• spamming
• pretexting
• junk mailing
2. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by e-mail
• by phone
• in person
• through another person
3. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse
• denial of service
4. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
5. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse
• brute force
• ping of death
• SYN flooding
6. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• adware
• popups
• spyware
• tracking cookies
7. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• brute force
• spam
• spyware
• tracking cookies
8. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling
9. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
• Only hard drives can be protected.
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
• Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.
10. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
• Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.
11. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• server-based
• integrated
• personal
• appliance-based
12. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• SPI
• DMZ
• ISR
• ISP
13. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
14. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• DMZ
• external
• internal
• a network other than the wired network
15. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to require a user ID and password to access the router
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
• to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
• to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices
16. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• A DMZ is not supported.
• The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
• The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.
17. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment
• a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
• a home environment that needs VPN access
• a smaller, less congested business environment
18. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It provides various views of possible attack paths.
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
• It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
• It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
• It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.
19. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Periodically update anti-virus software.
• Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
• Periodically update the host operating system.
• Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
• Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.
20. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• activation of a popup stopper
• a change of the default IP address
• an update in the antivirus software definitions
• physically securing the cable between the access point and client
21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
• It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
• fishing
• vishing
• phishing
• spamming
• pretexting
• junk mailing
2. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by e-mail
• by phone
• in person
• through another person
3. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse
• denial of service
4. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
5. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse
• brute force
• ping of death
• SYN flooding
6. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• adware
• popups
• spyware
• tracking cookies
7. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• brute force
• spam
• spyware
• tracking cookies
8. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling
9. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
• Only hard drives can be protected.
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
• Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.
10. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
• Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.
11. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• server-based
• integrated
• personal
• appliance-based
12. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• SPI
• DMZ
• ISR
• ISP
13. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
14. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• DMZ
• external
• internal
• a network other than the wired network
15. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to require a user ID and password to access the router
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
• to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
• to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices
16. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• A DMZ is not supported.
• The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
• The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.
17. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment
• a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
• a home environment that needs VPN access
• a smaller, less congested business environment
18. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It provides various views of possible attack paths.
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
• It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
• It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
• It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.
19. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Periodically update anti-virus software.
• Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
• Periodically update the host operating system.
• Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
• Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.
20. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• activation of a popup stopper
• a change of the default IP address
• an update in the antivirus software definitions
• physically securing the cable between the access point and client
21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
• It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 8
1. Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)
• fishing
• vishing
• phishing
• spamming
• pretexting
• junk mailing
2. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by e-mail
• by phone
• in person
• through another person
3. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse
• denial of service
4. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
5. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse
• brute force
• ping of death
• SYN flooding
6. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• adware
• popups
• spyware
• tracking cookies
7. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• brute force
• spam
• spyware
• tracking cookies
8. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling
9. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
• Only hard drives can be protected.
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
• Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.
10. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
• Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.
11. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• server-based
• integrated
• personal
• appliance-based
12. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• SPI
• DMZ
• ISR
• ISP
13. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
14. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• DMZ
• external
• internal
• a network other than the wired network
15. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to require a user ID and password to access the router
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
• to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
• to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices
16. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• A DMZ is not supported.
• The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
• The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.
17. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment
• a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
• a home environment that needs VPN access
• a smaller, less congested business environment
18. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It provides various views of possible attack paths.
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
• It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
• It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
• It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.
19. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Periodically update anti-virus software.
• Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
• Periodically update the host operating system.
• Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
• Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.
20. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• activation of a popup stopper
• a change of the default IP address
• an update in the antivirus software definitions
• physically securing the cable between the access point and client
21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
• It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
• fishing
• vishing
• phishing
• spamming
• pretexting
• junk mailing
2. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by e-mail
• by phone
• in person
• through another person
3. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse
• denial of service
4. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
5. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse
• brute force
• ping of death
• SYN flooding
6. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• adware
• popups
• spyware
• tracking cookies
7. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• brute force
• spam
• spyware
• tracking cookies
8. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling
9. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
• Only hard drives can be protected.
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
• Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.
10. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
• Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.
11. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• server-based
• integrated
• personal
• appliance-based
12. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• SPI
• DMZ
• ISR
• ISP
13. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
14. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• DMZ
• external
• internal
• a network other than the wired network
15. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to require a user ID and password to access the router
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
• to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
• to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices
16. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• A DMZ is not supported.
• The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
• The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.
17. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment
• a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
• a home environment that needs VPN access
• a smaller, less congested business environment
18. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It provides various views of possible attack paths.
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
• It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
• It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
• It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.
19. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Periodically update anti-virus software.
• Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
• Periodically update the host operating system.
• Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
• Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.
20. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• activation of a popup stopper
• a change of the default IP address
• an update in the antivirus software definitions
• physically securing the cable between the access point and client
21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
• It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 7
1. Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
• transmits at much lower frequencies
• has higher power output
• transmits at much higher frequencies
• uses better encryption methods
2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
• more secure
• longer range
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• easy and inexpensive to install
• ease of using licensed air space
• ease of adding additional devices
3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
• speed
• security
• mobility
• reduced installation time
• allows users to share more resources
• not susceptible to interference from other devices
4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
• the size of the building
• the number of solid interior walls in the building
• the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
• the encryption method used on the wireless network
• the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
• the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP
5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.
6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
• IEEE has approved the device.
• The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
• The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
• The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.
7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
• connects two networks with a wireless link
• stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
• allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
• increases the strength of a wireless signal
8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
• cell
• antenna
• access point
• wireless bridge
• wireless client
9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
• created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
• created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
• created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
• created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR
10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
• The router supports encryption and authentication.
• The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
• The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
• The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.
11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel
• SSID Broadcast
12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
• tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
• consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
• responsible for determining the signal strength
• all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
• used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network
13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
• Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
14. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
• Open
• PSK
• WEP
• EAP
15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
• requires no authentication
• uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
• requires the use of an authentication server
• requires a mutually agreed upon password
16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
• WEP
• WPA
• EAP
• ASCII
• pre-shared keys
17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
• Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
• Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
• Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
• Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.
18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
• address filtering
• authentication
• broadcasting
• encryption
• passphrase encoding
19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
• encryption
• hacking block
• traffic filtering
• MAC address filtering
• authentication
20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
• 8 bit
• 16 bit
• 32 bit
• 64 bit
• 128 bit
21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
• encrypt; authenticate users on
• filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
• identify the wireless network; compress data on
• create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on
• transmits at much lower frequencies
• has higher power output
• transmits at much higher frequencies
• uses better encryption methods
2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
• more secure
• longer range
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• easy and inexpensive to install
• ease of using licensed air space
• ease of adding additional devices
3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
• speed
• security
• mobility
• reduced installation time
• allows users to share more resources
• not susceptible to interference from other devices
4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
• the size of the building
• the number of solid interior walls in the building
• the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
• the encryption method used on the wireless network
• the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
• the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP
5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.
6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
• IEEE has approved the device.
• The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
• The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
• The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.
7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
• connects two networks with a wireless link
• stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
• allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
• increases the strength of a wireless signal
8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
• cell
• antenna
• access point
• wireless bridge
• wireless client
9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
• created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
• created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
• created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
• created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR
10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
• The router supports encryption and authentication.
• The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
• The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
• The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.
11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel
• SSID Broadcast
12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
• tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
• consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
• responsible for determining the signal strength
• all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
• used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network
13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
• Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
14. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
• Open
• PSK
• WEP
• EAP
15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
• requires no authentication
• uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
• requires the use of an authentication server
• requires a mutually agreed upon password
16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
• WEP
• WPA
• EAP
• ASCII
• pre-shared keys
17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
• Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
• Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
• Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
• Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.
18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
• address filtering
• authentication
• broadcasting
• encryption
• passphrase encoding
19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
• encryption
• hacking block
• traffic filtering
• MAC address filtering
• authentication
20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
• 8 bit
• 16 bit
• 32 bit
• 64 bit
• 128 bit
21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
• encrypt; authenticate users on
• filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
• identify the wireless network; compress data on
• create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 6
1. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
• the IP address of a web server
• a physical network address
• the closest router interface to the source
• the source IP address in the data transmission
2. What type of server would use IMAP?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web
3. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web
4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP
5. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP
6. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation
7. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.
8. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server
9. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP
10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP
11. Which port number is used by SMTP?
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110
12. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP
13. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
• blog
• e-mail
• web mail
• instant messaging
14. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.
15. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering
16. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information
17. What information is contained in an IP header?
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses
18. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3
19. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer
20. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
• 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits
21. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.
22. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
• the IP address of a web server
• a physical network address
• the closest router interface to the source
• the source IP address in the data transmission
2. What type of server would use IMAP?
• DNS
• DHCP
• FTP
• Telnet
• web
3. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
• DNS
• DHCP
• FTP
• Telnet
• web
4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP
5. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP
6. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation
7. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.
8. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server
9. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP
10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP
11. Which port number is used by SMTP?
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110
12. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP
13. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
• blog
• web mail
• instant messaging
14. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.
15. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering
16. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information
17. What information is contained in an IP header?
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses
18. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3
19. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer
20. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
• 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits
21. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.
22. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 5
1. How large are IPv4 addresses?
• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 32 bits
• 64 bits
• 128 bits
2. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
• The router interface does not have a default gateway.
• The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
• The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
• The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.
3. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet
4. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0
5. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.252
6. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
• 4
• 8
• 16
• 24
7. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512
8. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
• 175.124
• 35.4
• .4
• 124.35.4
• 175.124.35
9. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.16.4.4
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6
10. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• the default gateway
• the network broadcast address
11. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
• the MAC address of the sending host
• the MAC address of the destination host
• an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
• a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
12. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast
13. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
• MAC and IP addresses for the default router
• IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
• MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host
14. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
• The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
• The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
• The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
• The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.
15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• RARP
16. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
• The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
• The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
• The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
• All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
• Only the DHCP server receives the message.
17. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
• IP address of the destination host
• public gateway IP address of the ISP
• external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
• internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network
18. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
• ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
• allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
• solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
• allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location
19. What is one of the purposes of NAT?
• filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
• prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
• inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
• translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names
20. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
• Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.
21. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
• 10.0.0.17
• 128.107.1.2
• 192.135.250.0
• 209.165.201.1
• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 32 bits
• 64 bits
• 128 bits
2. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
• The router interface does not have a default gateway.
• The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
• The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
• The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.
3. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet
4. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0
5. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.252
6. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
• 4
• 8
• 16
• 24
7. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512
8. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
• 175.124
• 35.4
• .4
• 124.35.4
• 175.124.35
9. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.16.4.4
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6
10. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• the default gateway
• the network broadcast address
11. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
• the MAC address of the sending host
• the MAC address of the destination host
• an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
• a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
12. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast
13. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
• MAC and IP addresses for the default router
• IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
• MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host
14. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
• The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
• The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
• The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
• The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.
15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• RARP
16. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
• The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
• The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
• The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
• All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
• Only the DHCP server receives the message.
17. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
• IP address of the destination host
• public gateway IP address of the ISP
• external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
• internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network
18. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
• ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
• allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
• solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
• allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location
19. What is one of the purposes of NAT?
• filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
• prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
• inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
• translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names
20. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
• Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.
21. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
• 10.0.0.17
• 128.107.1.2
• 192.135.250.0
• 209.165.201.1
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 4
1. Which definition describes the term Internet?
• a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
• a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
• a network of networks that connects countries around the world
• a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization
2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and a home-based LAN
3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
• Internet LAN
• ISP backbone
• Internet gateways
• Internet providers
• Internet backbone
4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
• hub
• bridge
• modem
• repeater
• ISR
5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
• fast connections
• extra web space
• free Windows upgrade
• cheapest cost available to all users
• additional e-mail accounts
• replacement hardware at no cost
6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
• Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
• Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.
7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
• an IP address
• file sharing enabled
• a network connection
• server services enabled
• access to an Internet service provider
• an address obtained directly from the RIR
8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
• NOC
• ISP
• hop
• segment
9. What does the tracert command test?
• NIC functionality
• the ISP bandwidth
• the network path to a destination
• the destination application functionality
10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
• analog technology
• cable modem technology
• digital subscriber line technology
• wireless technology
11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
• to connect end users using cable technology
• to connect end users using analog technology
• to connect end users using wireless technology
• to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology
12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber
13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber
14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• between buildings
• in a home office network
• where EMI is an issue
• in a cable TV network
• inside a school building
• in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices
15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
• data security
• no loss of signal
• no electromagnetic interference
• reliable data communications
16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
• crossover
• eight coax channels
• multimode fiber
• single-mode fiber
• straight-through
17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
• ST
• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
• uses RJ-11 jacks
• uses RJ-45 jacks
• supports only data transmissions
• allows quick rearrangements of network connections
• forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses
19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
• requires no preplanning
• aids in isolation of cabling problems
• protects cables from physical damage
• provides compliance with future standards
• provides a short-term solution for cable installation
20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• installing cables in conduit
• having improper termination
• losing light over long distances
• installing low quality cable shielding
• using low quality cables or connectors
21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
• pinouts
• cable lengths
• connector color
• connector types
• cost per meter (foot)
• tensile strength of plastic insulator
• a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
• a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
• a network of networks that connects countries around the world
• a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization
2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and a home-based LAN
3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
• Internet LAN
• ISP backbone
• Internet gateways
• Internet providers
• Internet backbone
4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
• hub
• bridge
• modem
• repeater
• ISR
5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
• fast connections
• extra web space
• free Windows upgrade
• cheapest cost available to all users
• additional e-mail accounts
• replacement hardware at no cost
6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
• Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
• Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.
7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
• an IP address
• file sharing enabled
• a network connection
• server services enabled
• access to an Internet service provider
• an address obtained directly from the RIR
8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
• NOC
• ISP
• hop
• segment
9. What does the tracert command test?
• NIC functionality
• the ISP bandwidth
• the network path to a destination
• the destination application functionality
10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
• analog technology
• cable modem technology
• digital subscriber line technology
• wireless technology
11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
• to connect end users using cable technology
• to connect end users using analog technology
• to connect end users using wireless technology
• to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology
12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber
13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber
14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• between buildings
• in a home office network
• where EMI is an issue
• in a cable TV network
• inside a school building
• in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices
15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
• data security
• no loss of signal
• no electromagnetic interference
• reliable data communications
16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
• crossover
• eight coax channels
• multimode fiber
• single-mode fiber
• straight-through
17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
• ST
• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
• uses RJ-11 jacks
• uses RJ-45 jacks
• supports only data transmissions
• allows quick rearrangements of network connections
• forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses
19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
• requires no preplanning
• aids in isolation of cabling problems
• protects cables from physical damage
• provides compliance with future standards
• provides a short-term solution for cable installation
20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• installing cables in conduit
• having improper termination
• losing light over long distances
• installing low quality cable shielding
• using low quality cables or connectors
21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
• pinouts
• cable lengths
• connector color
• connector types
• cost per meter (foot)
• tensile strength of plastic insulator
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 3
1. Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?
• flow control
• encapsulation
• encoding
• multicasting
• access method
2. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
• H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
3. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
• adds complexity to networks
• encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
• provides consistent interconnections across networks
• ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
• simplifies new product development
4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
• type of cable used
• type of data transmission
• speed of transmission
• type of connector required
• maximum length of cable allowed
5. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source Ethernet address
6. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
• logical addresses only
• IP addresses only
• MAC addresses only
• broadcast addresses only
7. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
• detects transmission errors
• provides timing for transmission
• contains the start of frame delimiter
• indicates which protocol will receive the frame
8. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
• They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
• They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
• They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
• They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
• They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.
9. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
• modem
• switch
• router
• hub
10. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• server
• computer
11. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• WINS
12. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
• It drops the frame.
• It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
• It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
• It returns the frame to the sender.
13. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
• prevents collisions on a local network
• keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
• controls which hosts have access to the network
• controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network
14. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
• It sends the data packet as it was received.
• It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
• It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
• It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.
15. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
• ARP table
• routing table
• network table
• forwarding table
16. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.
17. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
• a server hosted by the ISP
• the router interface closest to the computer
• a server managed by a central IT department
• the switch interface that connects to the computer
18. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
• dynamic route
• default route
• destination route
• default destination
19. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
• naming scheme
• IP addressing scheme
• length of cable runs
• physical location of networking devices
• specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts
20. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• switch
• e-mail server
• application server
• wireless access point
21. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
• It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
• It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
• It enables the user to share printers.
• It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.
• flow control
• encapsulation
• encoding
• multicasting
• access method
2. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
• H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
3. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
• adds complexity to networks
• encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
• provides consistent interconnections across networks
• ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
• simplifies new product development
4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
• type of cable used
• type of data transmission
• speed of transmission
• type of connector required
• maximum length of cable allowed
5. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source Ethernet address
6. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
• logical addresses only
• IP addresses only
• MAC addresses only
• broadcast addresses only
7. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
• detects transmission errors
• provides timing for transmission
• contains the start of frame delimiter
• indicates which protocol will receive the frame
8. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
• They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
• They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
• They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
• They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
• They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.
9. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
• modem
• switch
• router
• hub
10. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• server
• computer
11. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• WINS
12. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
• It drops the frame.
• It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
• It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
• It returns the frame to the sender.
13. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
• prevents collisions on a local network
• keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
• controls which hosts have access to the network
• controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network
14. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
• It sends the data packet as it was received.
• It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
• It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
• It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.
15. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
• ARP table
• routing table
• network table
• forwarding table
16. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.
17. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
• a server hosted by the ISP
• the router interface closest to the computer
• a server managed by a central IT department
• the switch interface that connects to the computer
18. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
• dynamic route
• default route
• destination route
• default destination
19. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
• naming scheme
• IP addressing scheme
• length of cable runs
• physical location of networking devices
• specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts
20. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• switch
• e-mail server
• application server
• wireless access point
21. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
• It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
• It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
• It enables the user to share printers.
• It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 2
1. An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?
• clean install
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• virtualization
2. Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
• Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
• Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
• Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
• Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
• Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.
3. Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
• closest server
• operating system
• IP address
• subnet mask
• default gateway
• network card driver
4. Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
• partition
• file system
• computer name
• IP address
• operating system
5. Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
• CLI
• GUI
• redirector
• kernel translator
6. What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
• full access to source code
• software often available free
• structured development cycle
• can be expensive to purchase
• limits what end-user can do with code
• support normally user-based and often free
7. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
8. Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
• Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
• A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
• User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
• A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
• Each partition requires a different file system type.
9. What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
• Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
• A network administrator enters information on each computer.
• Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
• An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.
10. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel
11. Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
• required hard disk space
• type of accelerated graphics card
• recommended amount of RAM
• printer requirements
• processor type and speed
• type of keyboard
• clean install
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• virtualization
2. Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
• Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
• Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
• Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
• Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
• Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.
3. Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
• closest server
• operating system
• IP address
• subnet mask
• default gateway
• network card driver
4. Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
• partition
• file system
• computer name
• IP address
• operating system
5. Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
• CLI
• GUI
• redirector
• kernel translator
6. What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
• full access to source code
• software often available free
• structured development cycle
• can be expensive to purchase
• limits what end-user can do with code
• support normally user-based and often free
7. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
8. Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
• Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
• A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
• User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
• A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
• Each partition requires a different file system type.
9. What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
• Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
• A network administrator enters information on each computer.
• Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
• An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.
10. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel
11. Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
• required hard disk space
• type of accelerated graphics card
• recommended amount of RAM
• printer requirements
• processor type and speed
• type of keyboard
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 1
1. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?
• RAM
• CPU
• video card
• sound card
• operating system
2. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• exact components may be specified
• extended waiting period for assembly
• adequate for performing most general applications
• suited for customers with special needs
3. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?
• RAM
• NIC
• video card
• sound card
• storage device
4. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?
• modem card
• controller card
• video card
• sound card
• network interface card
5. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
• tape drive
• hard drive
• optical drive (DVD)
• floppy disk drive
6. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?
• CPU
• surge suppressor
• motherboard
• hard drive
7. What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
• printer
• speakers
• flash drive
• external DVD
• external modem
8. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
• protects the computer from voltage surges
• provides backup power from an internal battery
• protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
• gives the user time to phone the electrical company
• gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
• provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet
9. What is a word processor?
• It is a physical computer component.
• It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
• It is a program that controls the computer resources.
• It is a functional part of an operating system.
10. What is the purpose of the ASCII code?
• translates bits into bytes
• interprets graphics digitally
• translates digital computer language into binary language
• represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits
11. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?
• Servers require more power and thus require more components.
• Servers should be accessible at all times.
• Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
• Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.
12. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)
• Mobility is increased.
• An external monitor can be used.
• Alternate connectivity options may be available.
• The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
• More wireless security options are available.
13. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)
• CAD
• presentation
• spreadsheet
• word processing
• medical practice management
• contacts/scheduling management
14. Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)
• operating system
• network
• laptop
• desktop
• Windows
• mainframe
15. How is a server different from a workstation computer?
• The server works as a standalone computer.
• The server provides services to clients.
• The workstation has fewer applications installed.
• The workstation has more users who attach to it.
16. How many values are possible using a single binary digit?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8
• 9
• 16
17. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?
• bits
• pixels
• hertz
• bytes
18. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
• dry and non humid conditions
• carpeted floor
• grounding strap
• uncluttered work space
19. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
• Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
• Verify that all cables are connected properly.
• Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
• Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
• Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
• Reload the computer operating system.
20. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)
• Download and install the most current driver.
• Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
• Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
• Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
• Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.
21. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?
• manually assigned by the operating system
• manually assigned by the administrator
• statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
• dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system
• RAM
• CPU
• video card
• sound card
• operating system
2. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• exact components may be specified
• extended waiting period for assembly
• adequate for performing most general applications
• suited for customers with special needs
3. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?
• RAM
• NIC
• video card
• sound card
• storage device
4. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?
• modem card
• controller card
• video card
• sound card
• network interface card
5. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
• tape drive
• hard drive
• optical drive (DVD)
• floppy disk drive
6. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?
• CPU
• surge suppressor
• motherboard
• hard drive
7. What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
• printer
• speakers
• flash drive
• external DVD
• external modem
8. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
• protects the computer from voltage surges
• provides backup power from an internal battery
• protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
• gives the user time to phone the electrical company
• gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
• provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet
9. What is a word processor?
• It is a physical computer component.
• It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
• It is a program that controls the computer resources.
• It is a functional part of an operating system.
10. What is the purpose of the ASCII code?
• translates bits into bytes
• interprets graphics digitally
• translates digital computer language into binary language
• represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits
11. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?
• Servers require more power and thus require more components.
• Servers should be accessible at all times.
• Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
• Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.
12. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)
• Mobility is increased.
• An external monitor can be used.
• Alternate connectivity options may be available.
• The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
• More wireless security options are available.
13. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)
• CAD
• presentation
• spreadsheet
• word processing
• medical practice management
• contacts/scheduling management
14. Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)
• operating system
• network
• laptop
• desktop
• Windows
• mainframe
15. How is a server different from a workstation computer?
• The server works as a standalone computer.
• The server provides services to clients.
• The workstation has fewer applications installed.
• The workstation has more users who attach to it.
16. How many values are possible using a single binary digit?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8
• 9
• 16
17. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?
• bits
• pixels
• hertz
• bytes
18. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
• dry and non humid conditions
• carpeted floor
• grounding strap
• uncluttered work space
19. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
• Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
• Verify that all cables are connected properly.
• Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
• Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
• Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
• Reload the computer operating system.
20. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)
• Download and install the most current driver.
• Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
• Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
• Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
• Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.
21. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?
• manually assigned by the operating system
• manually assigned by the administrator
• statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
• dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 3
• flow control
• encapsulation
• encoding
• multicasting
• access method
2. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
• H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
3. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
• adds complexity to networks
• encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
• provides consistent interconnections across networks
• ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
• simplifies new product development
4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
• type of cable used
• type of data transmission
• speed of transmission
• type of connector required
• maximum length of cable allowed
5. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source Ethernet address
6. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
• logical addresses only
• IP addresses only
• MAC addresses only
• broadcast addresses only
7. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
• detects transmission errors
• provides timing for transmission
• contains the start of frame delimiter
• indicates which protocol will receive the frame
8. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
• They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
• They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
• They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
• They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
• They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.
9. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
• modem
• switch
• router
• hub
10. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• server
• computer
11. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• WINS
12. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
• It drops the frame.
• It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
• It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
• It returns the frame to the sender.
13. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
• prevents collisions on a local network
• keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
• controls which hosts have access to the network
• controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network
14. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
• It sends the data packet as it was received.
• It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
• It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
• It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.
15. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
• ARP table
• routing table
• network table
• forwarding table
16. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.
17. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
• a server hosted by the ISP
• the router interface closest to the computer
• a server managed by a central IT department
• the switch interface that connects to the computer
18. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
• dynamic route
• default route
• destination route
• default destination
19. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
• naming scheme
• IP addressing scheme
• length of cable runs
• physical location of networking devices
• specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts
20. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• switch
• e-mail server
• application server
• wireless access point
21. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
• It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
• It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
• It enables the user to share printers.
• It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 4
• a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
• a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
• a network of networks that connects countries around the world
• a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization
2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and a home-based LAN
3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
• Internet LAN
• ISP backbone
• Internet gateways
• Internet providers
• Internet backbone
4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
• hub
• bridge
• modem
• repeater
• ISR
5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
• fast connections
• extra web space
• free Windows upgrade
• cheapest cost available to all users
• additional e-mail accounts
• replacement hardware at no cost
6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
• Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
• Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.
7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
• an IP address
• file sharing enabled
• a network connection
• server services enabled
• access to an Internet service provider
• an address obtained directly from the RIR
8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
• NOC
• ISP
• hop
• segment
9. What does the tracert command test?
• NIC functionality
• the ISP bandwidth
• the network path to a destination
• the destination application functionality
10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
• analog technology
• cable modem technology
• digital subscriber line technology
• wireless technology
11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
• to connect end users using cable technology
• to connect end users using analog technology
• to connect end users using wireless technology
• to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology
12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber
13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber
14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• between buildings
• in a home office network
• where EMI is an issue
• in a cable TV network
• inside a school building
• in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices
15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
• data security
• no loss of signal
• no electromagnetic interference
• reliable data communications
16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
• crossover
• eight coax channels
• multimode fiber
• single-mode fiber
• straight-through
17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
• ST
• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
• uses RJ-11 jacks
• uses RJ-45 jacks
• supports only data transmissions
• allows quick rearrangements of network connections
• forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses
19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
• requires no preplanning
• aids in isolation of cabling problems
• protects cables from physical damage
• provides compliance with future standards
• provides a short-term solution for cable installation
20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• installing cables in conduit
• having improper termination
• losing light over long distances
• installing low quality cable shielding
• using low quality cables or connectors
21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
• pinouts
• cable lengths
• connector color
• connector types
• cost per meter (foot)
• tensile strength of plastic insulator
CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 5
1. How large are IPv4 addresses?
• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 32 bits
• 64 bits
• 128 bits
2. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
• The router interface does not have a default gateway.
• The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
• The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
• The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.
3. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet
4. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0
5. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.252
6. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
• 4
• 8
• 16
• 24
7. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512
8. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
• 175.124
• 35.4
• .4
• 124.35.4
• 175.124.35
9. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.16.4.4
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6
10. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• the default gateway
• the network broadcast address
11. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
• the MAC address of the sending host
• the MAC address of the destination host
• an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
• a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
12. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast
13. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
• MAC and IP addresses for the default router
• IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
• MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host
14. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
• The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
• The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
• The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
• The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.
15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• RARP
16. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
• The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
• The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
• The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
• All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
• Only the DHCP server receives the message.
17. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
• IP address of the destination host
• public gateway IP address of the ISP
• external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
• internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network
18. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
• ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
• allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
• solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
• allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location
19. What is one of the purposes of NAT?
• filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
• prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
• inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
• translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names
20. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
• Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.
21. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
• 10.0.0.17
• 128.107.1.2
• 192.135.250.0
• 209.165.201.1
CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 2
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and an Enterprise network
2. A network administrator needs to configure Telnet access to a router. Which group of commandsenable Telnet access to the router?
• Router(config)# enable password class
Router(config)# line con 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork
Router(config)# enable password cisco
• Router(config)# line aux 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# enable password class
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
3. Which two types of information should be included in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)
• maintenance time periods
• intrusion monitoring records
• offsite data storage procedures
• alternate IT processing locations*
• problem resolution escalation steps
4. Which two router parameters can be set from interface configuration mode? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• Telnet password
• hostname
• console password
• subnet mask
• enable secret password
5. Which two devices protect a corporate network against malicious attacks at the enterprise edge ?(Choose two.)
• demarc
• IP security (IPSec)
• Data Service Unit (DSU)
• intrusion prevention system (IPS)
• intrusion detection system (IDS)
6. Which three steps must be performed to remove all VLAN information from a switch but retain therest of the configuration? (Choose three.)
• Remove all VLAN associations from the interfaces.
• Remove the 802.1q encapsulation from the interfac
• Issue the command copy start run.
• Issue the command delete flash:vlan.dat.
• Issue the command erase start.
• Reload the switch.
7. What is the demarcation?
• physical point where the ISP responsibilty ends and the customer responsibilty begins
• physical location where all server farm connections meet before being distributed into the Core
• point of entry for outside attacks and is often vulnerable
• point of entry for all Access Layer connections from the Distribution Layer devices
8. Which device is responsible for moving packets between multiple network segments?
• router
• switch
• CSU/DSU
• IDS device
10. What information can an administrator learn using the show version command?
• Cisco IOS filename
• configured routing protocol
• status of each interface
• IP addresses of all interfaces
11. Which two situations require a network administrator to use out-of-band management to change arouter configuration? (Choose two.)
• Network links to the router are down.
• No Telnet password has been configured on the router.
• The administrator can only connect to the router using SSH.
• The network interfaces of the router are not configured with IP addresses.
• Company security policy requires that only HTTPS be used to connect to routers.
12. It is crucial that network administrators be able to examine and configure network devices fromtheir homes. Which two approaches allow this connectivity without increasing vulnerability to externalattacks? (Choose two.)
• Configure a special link at the POP to allow external entry from the home computer.
• Set up VPN access between the home computer and the network.
• Install a cable modem in the home to link to the network.
• Configure ACLs on the edge routers that allow only authorized users to access management portson network devices.
• Configure a server in the DMZ with a special username and password to allow external access.
13. A network administrator must define specific business processes to implement if a catastrophicdisaster prevents a company from performing daily business routines. Which portion of the networkdocumentation is the administrator defining?
• business security plan
• business continuity plan
• network solvency plan
• service level agreement
• network maintenance plan
14. A DoS attack crippled the daily operations of a large company for 8 hours. Which two optionscould be implemented by the network administrator to possibly prevent such an attack in the future?(Choose two.)
• install security devices with IDS and IPS at the enterprise edge
• reset all user passwords every 30 days
• filter packets based on IP address, traffic pattern, and protocol
• deny external workers VPN access to internal resources
• ensure critical devices are physically secure and placed behind the demarc
15. A network manager wants to have processes in place to ensure that network upgrades do not affectbusiness operations. What will the network manager create for this purpose?
• business security plan
• business continuity plan
• service level agreement
• network maintenance plan
16. An investment company has multiple servers that hold mission critical datThey are worried that ifsomething happens to these servers, they will lose this valuable information. Which type of plan isneeded for this company to help minimize loss in the event of a server crash?
• business security
• business continuity
• network maintenance
• service level agreement
17. When searching for information about authentication methods and usernames of companypersonnel, where can a network administrator look?
• Business Continuity Plan
• Business Security Plan
• Network Maintenance Plan
• Service Level Agreement
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about port Fa5/1?
• When a violation is detected, the port will log the information to a syslog server.
• When a violation is detected, the port will go into err-disable mod
• There have been 11 security violations since the last reloa
• The port is currently in the shutdown state.
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