Then, my friend told me that maybe I should take CCVP rather than CCNP since the condition and environment of my office can support me in pursuing CCVP.
The CCVP (Cisco Certified Voice Professional) validates a network professional's ability to implement and operate Cisco Unified Communications solutions in single site and multi-site deployments. Individuals who hold a CCVP certification can help create an IP telephony solution that is transparent, scalable, and manageable. The CCVP curriculum focuses on Cisco Unified CallManager, voice gateways and gatekeepers, switches, Unified IP Phones, and skills to secure the voice communications and ensure voice quality of service. Candidates must pass five secure, proctored certification-quality exams to become a Cisco Certified Voice Professional (CCVP). The prerequisite for the Cisco Certified Voice Professional (CCVP) is CCNA. As voice technologies continue to grow in importance Cisco helps you keep pace with a rapidly changing world. The CCVP provides network professionals with the knowledge, skills, and credentials necessary to design and implement end-to-end Cisco IP Telephony solutions. The certification content focuses on Cisco Call Manager, QoS, gateways, gatekeepers, IP phones, voice applications and utilities on Cisco routers and Catalyst switches..
Implementing Cisco Voice Gateways and Gatekeepers (GWGK)
So the steps that I should take are Cisco Voice Fundamentals, a 6-hour e-learning course to establish a strong foundation in VoIP and PSTN fundamentals, then CVOICE, followed by CIPT1, GWGK, or QoS in any order. CIPT2 should be completed only after completing CIPT1.
The final course in the series, IP Telephony Troubleshooting is best taken after having completed the other CCVP courses in the curriculum. Those will help me better understand how to install, configure and deploy the various voice products and technologies tested in the CCVP exams.
From the information that I got, there will be 5 exams to pass:
CVOICE is the foundation for it all (the most useful exam)
QoS is not much based on anything; but you need to have some background so it is better after CVOICE (the most interesting one)
GWGK is CVOICE2 (the hardest to master)
TUC has some parts built on CIPT knowledge (the easiest to do)
CIPT is a lot better after GWGK (the most boring)
I will think about CCVP and CCNP, which one should I choose for now...
Here I will explain about configuring a Cisco Catalyst Switch
Preparation to Configure a Switch
Basic Switch Configuration:
Management Interface Considerations
Configure Management Interface
Configure Default Gateway
Verify Configuration
Configure Duplex and Speed
Configure a Web Interface
Prepare to Configure the Switch The initial startup of a Catalyst switch requires the completion of the following steps: Step 1. Before starting the switch, verify the following: All network cable connections are secure. Your PC or terminal is connected to the console port. Your terminal emulator application, such as HyperTerminal is running and configured properly. The figure shows a PC connected to a switch using the console port. The figure below shows the correct configuration of HyperTerminal, which can be used to view the console of a Cisco device. In here I'm using a USB-to-RS232 converter the driver make a new Serial Port COM 15. If your PC or Laptop already has a Serial Port it should be COM 1.
Step 2. Attach the power cable plug to the switch power supply socket. The switch will start. Some Catalyst switches, including the Cisco Catalyst 2960 series, do not have power buttons. Step 3. Observe the boot sequence as follows: When the switch is on, the POST begins. During POST, the LEDs blink while a series of tests determine that the switch is functioning properly. When the POST has completed, the SYST LED rapidly blinks green. If the switch fails POST, the SYST LED turns amber. When a switch fails the POST test, it is necessary to repair the switch. Observe the Cisco IOS software output text on the console.
POST: CPU MIC PostASIC interface Loopback Tests : Begin
POST: CPU MIC PostASIC interface Loopback Tests : End, Status Passed
POST: PostASIC RingLoopback Tests : Begin
POST: PostASIC RingLoopback Tests : End, Status Passed
POST: PostASIC CAM Subsystem Tests: Begin
During the initial startup of the switch, if POST failures are detected, they are reported to the console and the switch does not start. If POST completes successfully, and the switch has not been configured before, you are prompted to configure the switch.
Management Interface Considerations An access layer switch is much like a PC in that you need to configure an IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway. To manage a switch remotely using TCP/IP, you need to assign the switch an IP address. In the figure, you want to manage S1 from PC1, a computer used for managing the network. To do this, you need to assign switch S1 an IP address. This IP address is assigned to a virtual interface called a virtual LAN (VLAN), and then it is necessary to ensure the VLAN is assigned to a specific port or ports on the switch.
The default configuration on the switch is to have the management of the switch controlled through VLAN 1. However, a best practice for basic switch configuration is to change the management VLAN to a VLAN other than VLAN 1. The implications and reasoning behind this action are explained in the next chapter. The figure illustrates the use of VLAN 99 as the management VLAN; however, it is important to consider that an interface other than VLAN 99 can be considered for the management interface.
Configure Management Interface To configure an IP address and subnet mask on the management VLAN of the switch, you must be in VLAN interface configuration mode. Use the command interface vlan 99 and enter the ip address configuration command. You must use the no shutdown interface configuration command to make this Layer 3 interface operational. When you see "interface VLAN x", that refers to the Layer 3 interface associated with VLAN x. Only the management VLAN has an interface VLAN associated with it.
Note that a Layer 2 switch, such as the Cisco Catalyst 2960, only permits a single VLAN interface to be active at a time. This means that the Layer 3 interface, interface VLAN 99, is active, but the Layer 3 interface, interface VLAN 1, is not active.
Configure Default Gateway You need to configure the switch so that it can forward IP packets to distant networks. The default gateway is the mechanism for doing this. The switch forwards IP packets with destination IP addresses outside the local network to the default gateway. In the figure, router R1 is the next-hop router. Its IP address is 172.17.99.1.
To configure a default gateway for the switch, use the ip default-gateway command. Enter the IP address of the next-hop router interface that is directly connected to the switch where a default gateway is being configured. Make sure you save the configuration running on a switch or router. Use the copy running-config startup-config command to back up your configuration.
Verify Configuration Here is an abbreviated screen output showing that VLAN 99 has been configured with an IP address and subnet mask, and Fast Ethernet port F0/18 has been assigned the VLAN 99 management interface:
Show the IP Interfaces Use the show ip interface brief to verify port operation and status. Y
The mdix auto Command
You used to be required to use certain cable types (cross-over, straight-through) when connecting between specific devices, switch-to-switch or switch-to-router. Instead, you can now use the mdix auto interface configuration command in the CLI to enable the automatic medium-dependent interface crossover (auto-MDIX) feature.
When the auto-MDIX feature is enabled, the switch detects the required cable type for copper Ethernet connections and configures the interfaces accordingly. Therefore, you can use either a crossover or a straight-through cable for connections to a copper 10/100/1000 port on the switch, regardless of the type of device on the other end of the connection.
The auto-MDIX feature is enabled by default on switches running Cisco IOS Release 12.2(18)SE or later. For releases between Cisco IOS Release 12.1(14)EA1 and 12.2(18)SE, the auto-MDIX feature is disabled by default.
Configure Duplex and Speed You can use the duplex interface configuration command to specify the duplex mode of operation for switch ports. You can manually set the duplex mode and speed of switch ports to avoid inter-vendor issues with autonegotiation. Although there can be issues when you configure switch port duplex settings to auto, in this example, S1 and S2 switches have the same duplex settings and speeds. The figure describes the steps to configure the port F0/1 on the S1 switch.
Here is the Cisco IOS CLI Command Syntax:
S1#configure terminal
S1(config)#Interface fastethernet 0/1
S1(config-if)#duplex auto
S1(config-if)#speed auto
S1(config-if)#end
S1#copy running-config startup-config
Configure a Web Interface Modern Cisco switches have a number of web-based configuration tools that require that the switch is configured as an HTTP server. These applications include the Cisco web browser user interface, Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM), and IP Phone and Cisco IOS Telephony Service applications.
To control who can access the HTTP services on the switch, you can optionally configure authentication. Authentication methods can be complex. You may have so many people using the HTTP services that you require a separate server specifically to handle user authentication. AAA and TACACS authentication modes are examples that use this type of remote authentication method. AAA and TACACS are authentication protocols that can be used in networks to validate user credentials. You may need to have a less complex authentication method. The enable method requires users to use the server's enable password. The local authentication method requires the user to use the login username, password, and privilege level access combination specified in the local system configuration (by the username global configuration command).
Here is the Cisco IOS CLI Command Syntax: S1#configure terminal S1(config)#ip http authentication enable S1(config)#ip http server S1(config)#end
1) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do? ans: Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.) ans: Physical layer Data-link layer
3) Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.) ans: the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
4) What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.) ans: addressing error detection frame delimiting
5) When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired? ans: The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <—
6) What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.) ans: identifies the network layer protocol makes the connection with the upper layers insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
7) What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies? ans: Logical Link Control sublayer
Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame? ans: A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9.Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain? ans: network layer packet
10) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.) ans: Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host. A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11) Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method? ans: Collisions can decrease network performance.
12) Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model? ans: network access
13) What is the primary purpose of ARP? ans: resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
14) Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link? ans: No collisions will occur on this link.
15) Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.) ans: A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A. A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
16) Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.) ans: copied into RAM during system startup contains a 3 byte OUI 6 bytes long
17) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.) ans: minimizing of collisions increase in the throughput of communications
18) What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.) ans: copper UTP optical fiber
19) Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below. ans: BA
20) After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data? ans: any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
21) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.) ans: Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78. Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
packet switching
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection
flow control
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command? This route is automatically propagated throughout the network. The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0. A static route is established. The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 has been used as a routing protocol on the network. A new 172.16.2.0/24 network has been added on router R2 and configured under the RIP routing process. When will R1 converge? after 13 seconds after 30 seconds after 180 seconds after R1 receives triggered updates from R2 Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.) a CSU/DSU device a modem an Ethernet switch a hub a bridge Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output in the exhibit, why can users establish a console connection to this router without entering a password? The login command was not entered on the console line. The enable password should be an enable secret password. No username and password combination has been configured. Console connections cannot be configured to require users to provide passwords. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to configure a router by copying and pasting the commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, only one of the FastEthernet interfaces is coming up. What is the problem? Both interfaces are in the same IP subnet. FastEthernet0/1 does not have a description. There can be only one FastEthernet interface enabled on a router at one time. The administrator did not exit to global configuration mode before configuring FastEthernet0/1. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.) A static route will be updated in the routing table. The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2. The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked. The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table. All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true? The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured. A default route must be configured on every router. Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet. The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show running-config output, which option correctly reflects the routes that will be listed in the R2 routing table?
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask can be used to meet the 24 host requirement of the LAN that is attached to Router3? 192.168.0.0/27 192.168.0.64/26 192.168.0.192/26 192.168.0.192/27 A network administrator has been asked to configure a network using a classful IP addressing scheme. Which statement is true about the IP addressing that will be used? Classful IP addresses can be used only when static routing is configured in the network. Classful IP addresses allow the network/host boundary to occur at any bit in the 32-bit address. The subnet mask for classful IP addresses can be determined by the value of the first octet of the IP address. Classful IP addresses require the subnet mask to be included in the routing updates that are propagated by the classful routing protocols.
Which range of IP addresses will be used by RIPv2, EIGRP, and OSPF routing protocols to send routing advertisements?
Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.
What is the reason for the ping failure? The serial interface between two routers is down. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2. RIPv1 needs to be configured. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2? triggered updates poison reverse holddown timers split horizon Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with RIPv2 active on all interfaces. Automatic summarization is in effect. Why does the routing table on R3 include the 209.165.200.228/30 network but not the 172.30.1.0/24 and 172.30.2.0/24 networks? CIDR is required to route supernets. There is no default gateway configured. The 172.30.0.0/16 subnets are discontiguous. RIPv2 cannot route networks with variable subnets. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.) All routes are stable. Each route has one feasible successor. The serial interface between the two routers is down. The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50. The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is having problems accessing server A. All routers have the same EIGRP configuration as router RTR_A. What should be done so that host A can access server A? Add the command no auto-summary on all routers. Change the network statements to include a wildcard mask. Adjust the EIGRP hello timers to account for the network delay. Add the command eigrp log-neighbor-changes on all routers. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output? EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors. The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established. The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2. Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor. DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0. Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor. Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem? Reboot the routers. Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0. Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX. Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers. Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.) network address loopback address autonomous system number subnet mask wildcard mask area ID Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.) Set a lower priority on R2. Configure the routers in the same area. Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1. Add a backup designated router to the network. Match the hello and dead timers on both routers. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.
Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.) Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value. Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0. Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers. Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.) They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships. They are used to determine the complete network topology. They are used with timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link. They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. It determines the best path to send packets. It manages the VLAN database. It increases the size of the broadcast domain
2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command? ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, ROM
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
3. Which router component is used to store the routing table? Flash NVRAM ROM
SDRAM
4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes? 1 3
4
6
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
The static route will not work correctly
6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort. The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0. The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1
7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R1.
The packets will travel via R2-R3. The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3. The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path
8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24 network can reach the default gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping? router R1 Fa0/0 interface
router R1 S0/0/0 interface
router R2 S0/0/0 interface router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces
9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network? It will use the A-D path only. It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths. It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.
10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only
11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1 RIPv2
13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0
R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface. The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2. The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco001 Cisco123
Cisco789
Cisco901
17. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
DCE
CSU/DSU
LAN switch
modem
hub
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1 Router2 Router3
Router4
19. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD. ABCD does not support switching capability.
20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table? Change the routing metric for that route. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own. Change the administrative distance for that route.
Remove the route using the no ip route command.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
A routing protocol is not configured on both routers. The default gateway has not been configured on host A.
22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1 from R2 to 192.168.3.1
23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0? It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface. It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet to R1
24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they are unable to connect to the Internet. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?
A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop. A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop. The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop. The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should be the R1 FastEthernet interface
25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
172.16.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/10
172.16.0.0/13
172.16.0.0/20 172.16.0.0/24
26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1 the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2
27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
The default gateway is incorrect. The address is in the wrong subnet. The host address and default gateway are swapped.
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet
28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A the IP address of host A the default gateway of the server
29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol? private IP addressing advertising default routes
variable length subnet masks
summarization on major network boundaries
30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface? 172.16.128.154/18 172.16.255.254/18 172.24.64.254/18
172.24.127.254/18
31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing. RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1. A classful routing protocol is being used
33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates. It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down
34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
35. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command. The maximum path number has been exceeded.
36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time. It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors. It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command
40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?
The packet is discarded.
The packet is flooded out all interfaces. The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0. The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.
42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network? RIPv1 RIPv2
EIGRP
OSPF
43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
Automatic summarization is disabled.
The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.
There is one feasible successor in the routing table. The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down. The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface
44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
They have different OSPF router IDs. They have different process IDs
45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
46. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
OSPF interval timers mismatch
administrative distance mismatch
interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured gateway of last resort not redistributed
47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.) the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet? It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs. It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?
Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.
The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process
50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as shown. Because of the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router A fails and is replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will happen?
Router D will be elected DR, and router C will become the BDR.
Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR. Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR. Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only the BDR
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Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
