Cisco Exam Answer and Cisco Free E-Book: Mei 2010

Minggu, 09 Mei 2010

CCNA 3 final test

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?

interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown

*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11

interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?

*** SC

cannot be determined from the information given

3
A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?

VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.

*** It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.

It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.

It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.

It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.

4
Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)

*** to prevent routing information from being falsified

to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead

to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates

to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing

*** to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source

5
A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?

VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.

VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.

*** VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.

6
Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?

physical

distribution

data link

*** access

core

Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)

RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

8
Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.

*** Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

9
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)

*** RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.

RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.

The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.

*** A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.

*** The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.

RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

10
Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?

access

backbone

*** distribution

core

11
A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support supernetting? (Choose two.)

*** a classless routing protocol

a classful routing protocol

*** OSPF

IGRP

RIP v1

Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?

*** The switch is sending and receiving frames.

The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.

The switch is participating in an election process.

The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.

Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0

*** RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
*** RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1

RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0

14
Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?

switch

bridge

*** router

active hub

15
Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

*** allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host

requires a minimum of two wires

*** reduces the number of collisions

allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions

*** allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions

increases the number of broadcast domains

Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?

Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.

One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.

*** VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.

The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

Configure the hostname on Switch2.

*** Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.

Set the management VLAN password.

*** Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.

*** Establish host connectivity to Switch2.

Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

*** B(config)# router eigrp 1
*** B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?

192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30

192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30

192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30

192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30

*** 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30

20
Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)

Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.

Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.

*** Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.

*** Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.

After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.

*** Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.

Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1

*** Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

22
The following command was added to a router’s configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)

A default route will be created.

*** A static route will be created.

*** Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.

All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.

The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.

Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?

physical

data link

core

access

network

*** distribution

Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?

show vlan ifindex

show vlan id

*** show vlan brief

show running-config

Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was connected to SW-A.

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

26
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?

by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers

by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers

by comparing known routes to received updates

*** by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers

by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports

27
What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

elect a designated switch

use a router to locate a default gateway

*** elect a root bridge

determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

*** R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

29
Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

cut-through

fast-forward

fragment-free

*** store-and-forward

Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?

B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0

*** B(config)# router ospf 1
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

31
What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch is going through POST.

The switch is in the process of initializing ports.

The switch has failed POST.

*** The switch has passed POST and is working properly.

Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?

highest Layer 2 address

highest priority number

highest path cost

lowest Layer 2 address

*** lowest priority number

lowest path cost

33
A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?

add additional hubs

*** replace hubs with switches

replace hubs with access points

add a router to every hub segment

One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.

*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.

The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.

EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.

35
Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)

*** hop count as a metric

classless routing

*** use split horizon

*** maximum hop count is 15

broadcast updates

no authentication

36
When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can be configured on the router? (Choose three.)

*** the network number

subnet mask

*** wildcard mask

process number

area ID

*** autonomous system number

Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem ｂａｓｅd on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?

The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.

*** The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.

The router is not configured for trunking.

The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value

*** change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
*** (config-if)# switchport mode access
*** (config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2

40
Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

*** They can support multiple routed protocols.

They can support only link-state protocols.

They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.

*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.

They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?

dial Corporate 172.16.15.5

line vty 0 4
telnet

telnet Corporate

*** telnet 172.16.15.5

What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?

*** provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure

provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem

provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging

provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers

What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.

access

channel

interVLAN

intraVLAN

*** trunk

Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF routes from the other routers. ｂａｓｅd on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?

A# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

B# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

*** duplicate IP address

mismatched OSPF process IDs

mismatched OSPF timers

mismatched clock rates

Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?

Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.

*** Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.

Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.

No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.

46
Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

eliminates physical loops in network topologies

*** eliminates logical loops in network topologies

can only be used in networks where routers are installed

*** can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design

can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used

47
A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?

192.168.3.192

*** 192.168.3.209

192.168.3.223

192.168.3.225

192.168.3.235

48
Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

*** (config)# interface vlan 1
*** (config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
*** (config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface management vlan
(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1
(config-if)# no shutdown

49
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

*** when a router has discontiguous networks attached

when a router has less than five active interfaces

Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links

*** 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
*** 200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
*** 200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
*** 200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links

CCNA3 Final

04 March 2010

1
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address
2
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
3
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
4
Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1
Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
5
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
6
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning
Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
7 What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config 172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?
The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
8
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.9 Which two statements are correct about wireless infrastructure components? (Choose two.)
An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network.
A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet.
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dedicated bandwidth to each connected wireless host.
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs.
The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router.
10
Which service should be disabled on a Cisco switch or router to prevent packet sniffers from capturing information about the device?
SSH
VTP
CDP
SNMP
11
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which
hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
12
What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs.
Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation.
The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management.Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment.
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies.
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for a fully-meshed topology.
13 A network administrator implements inter-VLAN routing by configuring subinterfaces on a router. What is one important fact that must considered?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be issued on each subinterface.
The IP address of each router subinterface must be used as the default gateway for hosts on the corresponding VLAN.
14
Which type of frame contains information that is used in the election of the spanning tree root bridge?
BID
LSA
LSU
BPDU
15
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the
switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F
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16
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames with a source address other than 0019.d2e4.d9f7 enters interface Fa0/24?
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The Fa0/24 port LED will be turned off.
The security violation count will be incremented.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly
configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running these
commands?
VLAN 30 will be added to S1, S2, and S3, but not to S4.
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3.
VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed.
19
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
20
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
21
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN
22 When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?
subinterfaces
routing protocol
switched virtual circuits
dynamic trunking protocol
23
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
24 Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot
your computer to establish a connection.
25
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size
the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available.

What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.26
Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
28
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
29
Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-Acomputer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
30
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch
ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000
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1. Assessment Selection 2. Assessment Settings 3. Take Assessment
Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and
Wireless (Version 4.0)
Time Remaining:
31
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the
switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
32
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode.
Configure a default gateway on the switch.Configure the native VLAN on the switch.
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs.
34
Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a “password required, but none set” message
when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
The enable secret password was not set.
S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
35
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface
fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish trunk.
36
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSIDOFDM
WEP
DSSS
37
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
38
Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk? (Choose two.)
Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router.Because interface Fa0/0 requires an IP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs.
Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0 /24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20.The router will use subinterface MAC addresses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface.
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down.
http://www.ccna4u.org 39
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other
switches in the same domain?
client
root
server
transparent
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
41
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
42
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the
switchport mode dynamic auto command.
43
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
Connect each PC directly to a router port.
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
44
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent
attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
45 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
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1. Assessment Selection 2. Assessment Settings 3. Take Assessment
Take Assessment – ESwitching Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and
Wireless (Version 4.0)
Time Remaining:
46
Refer to the exhibit. The commands are entered into switch SW1 as shown, and an 802.1q trunk is successfully established. How does
switch SW1 handle the untagged traffic that is destined for the trunk?
SW1 will drop all untagged traffic.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 1.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 25.
SW1 will send untagged traffic to all VLANs that are configured on the trunk.
47
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
48
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
49
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
SSID
WPA
50 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
51
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal
strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
52 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
Showing 4 of 4

Jumat, 07 Mei 2010

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 2

Expect minimum percentage: 83%

1)Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical
Data Link

2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection

3)During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
ans:
physical address is added.

4)What device is considered an intermediary device?
ans:
switch

5)Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
ans:
network

6)Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
determine pathways for data
retime and retransmit data signals
manage data flows

7)What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
ans:
the path to use to reach the destination host

8)What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
ans:
presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

9)Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network A — LAN

10)What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages

11)Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
ans:
multiplexing

12)What is a PDU?
ans:
a layer specific encapsulation

13)Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
ans:
an end device

14)Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
ans:
E, F, H, I, J

15)Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
ans:
intermediary

16)Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
ans:
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

17)Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
ans:
LAN

18)What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
ans:
division of segments into packets

19)Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
ans:
originate data flow

20)What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
ans:
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21)Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
ans:
define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
require layer dependent encapsulations

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 4

Expect minimum percentage: 92.7%

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
ans:
This contains a Telnet request.
This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
ans:
0 to 1023

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
ans:
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
ans:
transport

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
ans:
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
ans:
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
ans:
session establishment

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
ans:
source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
ans:
low overhead
connectionless

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
ans:
window size

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
ans:
UDP

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
ans:
source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
ans:
flow control
session establishment
numbering and sequencing

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
ans:
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
ans:
minimal delays in data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
ans:
80

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
ans:
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 5

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
ans:
destination network address

2) What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
ans:
source and destination IP address

3) In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
ans:
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

4)
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
ans:
time-to-live

5) Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
ans:
network portion

6) Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
ans:
192.133.219.1

7) If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
ans:
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

What is the purpose of a default gateway?
ans:
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9) What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
ans:
static

10) When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11) What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
ans:
purpose
geographic location
ownership

12) What is a component of a routing table entry?
ans:
the next-hop address

13) Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
router
firewall

14) What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
ans:
Performance degradation
security issues
host identification

15) Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
ans:
4

16) Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
ans:
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
ans:
10.10.10.6

18) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Replace S2 with a router.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.

19) Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20) What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
consume bandwidth to exchange route information

21) What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
ans:
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 6

xpect minimum percentage: 100%

1) How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
ans:
32

2) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
ans:
255.255.255.192

3) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?
ans:
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

4) Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
ans:
/27

5) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
ans:
NAT is required for the host A network.

6) What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
ans:
255.255.255.0

7) Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
ans:
This is a network address.

What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
ans:
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
varies in length
is used to forward packets

9) What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
ans:
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

10) A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
ans:
172.16.192.160

11) Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
ans:
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

12) What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router will discard the packet.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

13) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192

14) Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
ans:
larger address space
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption

15) Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
ans:
binary ANDing

16) What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
ans:
expanded addressing capabilities

17) Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90

18) Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19) Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.207 /27

20) What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
ans:
a network

21) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
ans:
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22) Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
servers
network printers
routers

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 7

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?
ans:
802.11

2) What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
ans:
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

3) Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
ans:
nondeterministic
collision environment
first-come, first-served approach

4) Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three)
ans:
non-deterministic
less overhead
collisions exist

5) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

6) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

7) Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link layer?
ans:
MAC, LLC

Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)
ans:
non-deterministic
uses first-come, first-served approach

9)Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
ans:
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

10) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

11) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They are considered physical addresses.

12) A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawin
ans:
physical topology

13) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

14) Which three session options does PPP offer? (Choose three.)
ans:
multilink
compression
authentication

15) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

16) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
ans:
source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP – PC

18) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

19) What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
ans:
support frame error detection

20) What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
ans:
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

21) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

22) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

23) What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
ans:
The media access control protocol can be very simple.

24) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
ans:
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

25) What is a function of the data link layer?
ans:
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

26) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

27) What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
ans:
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

28) Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
ans:
MAC

29) What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

30) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

31) 19.Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
ans:
4

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 8

Expect minimum percentage: 94.3%

1) What are the five elements that make up the fiber-optic cable?
ans:
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket

2) In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
ans:
1 and 2
3 and 6

3) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

4) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

5) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

6) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

9) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

10) What encoding scheme does 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet use?
ans:
4B/5B

11) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

12) In which of the following situations would a crossover cable be used? (Choose two.)
ans:
router to PC
switch to hub

13) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

14) What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
ans:
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

16) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

17) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

18) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

19) What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
ans:
goodput
throughput
bandwidth

20) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

21) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

22) Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
ans:

23) With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
ans:
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

24) What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
ans:
the twisting of the wires in the cable

25) XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
ans:
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP

26) In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
ans:
fiber

27) What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
ans:
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media

28) Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
ans:
backbone cable

29) What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
ans:
more host mobility

30) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 9

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
ans:
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical layer
Data-link layer

3) Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
ans:
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4) What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
ans:
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting

5) When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
ans:
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <—

6) What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

7) What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
ans:
Logical Link Control sublayer

Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
ans:
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
ans:
network layer packet

10) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11) Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
ans:
Collisions can decrease network performance.

12) Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
ans:
network access

13) What is the primary purpose of ARP?
ans:
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14) Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
ans:
No collisions will occur on this link.

15) Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
ans:
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16) Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
copied into RAM during system startup
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long

17) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
minimizing of collisions
increase in the throughput of communications

18) What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
ans:
copper UTP
optical fiber

19) Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
ans:
BA

20) After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
ans:
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first

21) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 10