Cisco Exam Answer and Cisco Free E-Book

Configuring Static VLANs – 2950 Series

2011-10-20T22:45:00.000-07:00

Configuring Static VLANs – 2950 Series

Switch>enable

Switch#configure terminal

Switch(config)#hostname Switch_A

Switch_A(config)#enable secret class

Switch_A(config)#line con 0

Switch_A(config-line)#password cisco

Switch_A(config-line)#login

Switch_A(config-line)#line vty 0 15

Switch_A(config-line)#password cisco

Switch_A(config-line)#login

Switch_A(config-line)#exit

Switch_A(config)#interface Vlan1

Switch_A(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

Switch_A(config-if)#no shutdown

Switch_A(config-if)#exit

Switch_A(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Switch_A(config)#end

Create and name two VLANs

Enter the following commands to create and name two VLANs:

Switch_A#vlan database

Switch_A(vlan)#vlan 2 name VLAN2

Switch_A(vlan)#vlan 3 name VLAN3

Switch_A(vlan)#exit

Assign ports to VLAN 2

Assigning ports to VLANs must be done from the interface mode. Enter the following commands to

add port 2 to VLAN 2:

Switch_A#configure terminal

Switch_A(config)#interface fastethernet 0/2

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport mode access

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2

Switch_A(config-if)#end

Contoh lain

Assign ports to VLAN 2

Assigning ports to VLANs must be done from the interface mode. Enter the following commands to

add ports 4, 5 and 6 to VLAN 2.

Switch_A#configure terminal

Switch_A(config)#interface fastethernet 0/4

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport mode access

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2

Switch_A(config-if)#interface fastethernet 0/5

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport mode access

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2

Switch_A(config-if)#interface fastethernet 0/6

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport mode access

Switch_A(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2

Switch_A(config-if)#end

Look at only VLAN2 information

a. Instead of displaying all of the VLANs type the show vlan id 2 command at the Privileged

EXEC mode prompt as follows:

Switch_A#show vlan id 2

Look at only VLAN2 information with a different command (1900: Omit this step)

a. Instead of displaying all of the VLANs type the show vlan name VLAN2 command at the

Privileged EXEC mode prompt.

Switch_A#show vlan name VLAN2

Test the VLANs

Ping from the host in port 0/4 to the host in port 0/1.

a. Was the ping successful? No

b. Why? Different vlan membership

Ping from the host in port 0/1 to the host in port 0/4.

c. Was the ping successful? No

d. Why? Different vlan membership

Ping from the host in port 0/4 to the switch IP 192.168.1.2.

e. Was the ping successful? No

f. Why? Different vlan membership

Ping from the host in port 0/1 to the switch IP 192.168.1.2.

g. Was the ping successful? Yes

h. Why? Same vlan membership

Deleting VLAN Configurations – 2950 Series

Delete a Host from a VLAN

To remove a host from a VLAN, use the no form of the switchport commands in the port interface

configuration mode.

Switch_A#configure terminal

Switch_A(config)#interface fastethernet 0/4

Switch_A(config-if)#no switchport access vlan 2

Delete VLAN 1

a. Try to delete VLAN 1, which is the default VLAN, the same way that you deleted VLAN 3.

Switch_A#vlan database

Switch_A(vlan)#no vlan 1

A default VLAN may not be deleted.

Switch_A(vlan)#exit

Erasing and Reloading the Switch

For the majority of the labs in CCNA 3 and CCNA 4 it is necessary to start with an unconfigured

switch. Use of a switch with an existing configuration may produce unpredictable results. These

instructions allow preparation of the switch prior to performing the lab so previous configuration

options do not interfere. The following is the procedure for clearing out previous configurations and

starting with an unconfigured switch. Instructions are provided for the 2900, 2950, and 1900 Series

switches.

2900 and 2950 Series Switches

1. Enter into the Privileged EXEC mode by typing enable.

If prompted for a password, enter class (if that does not work, ask the instructor).

Switch>enable

2. Remove the VLAN database information file.

Switch#delete flash:vlan.dat

Delete filename [vlan.dat]?[Enter]

Delete flash:vlan.dat? [confirm] [Enter]

If there was no VLAN file, this message is displayed.

%Error deleting flash:vlan.dat (No such file or directory)

3. Remove the switch startup configuration file from NVRAM.

Switch#erase startup-config

The responding line prompt will be:

Erasing the nvram filesystem will remove all files! Continue? [confirm]

Press Enter to confirm.

The response should be:

Erase of nvram: complete

4. Check that VLAN information was deleted.

Verify that the VLAN configuration was deleted in Step 2 using the show vlan command. If

previous VLAN configuration information (other than the default management VLAN 1) is still

present it will be necessary to power cycle the switch (hardware restart) instead of issuing the

reload command. To power cycle the switch, remove the power cord from the back of the

switch or unplug it. Then plug it back in.

If the VLAN information was successfully deleted in Step 2, go to Step 5 and restart the switch

using the reload command.

5. Software restart (using the reload command)

Note: This step is not necessary if the switch was restarted using the power cycle method.

a. At the Privileged EXEC mode enter the command reload.

Switch#reload

The responding line prompt will be:

System configuration has been modified. Save? [yes/no]:

b. Type n and then press Enter.

The responding line prompt will be:

Proceed with reload? [confirm] [Enter]

The first line of the response will be:

Reload requested by console.

After the switch has reloaded, the line prompt will be:

Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/no]:

c. Type n and then press Enter.

The responding line prompt will be:

Press RETURN to get started! [Enter]

CCNA 1 Final Exam V4.0 Answers

2011-09-29T21:34:00.000-07:00

1.Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80

http://www.ccnafinal.net

C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

2. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J>
Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

3. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server

6. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?
IP
UDP
Ethernet
a connectionless acknowledgement
an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
segment1
segment2
segment3
segment4
segment5

9. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three)
uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
contains a network portion

10.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)
A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
Five collision domains exist.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

12. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

13.

Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

14.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

15. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
IP address of the host
default gateway of the host
IP address of the homepage for the host
primary domain name server for the host
IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local

19.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?
Athens
Ankara
London
Paris
PC4

21. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
enable secret
enable password

22. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
transport

23.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier

25. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

26. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

27.

Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?
an FTP client
a Telnet client
a terminal emulation program
a web browser

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J

29.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

30. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
router
switch

31. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
1000 Base LX

32.

Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)
192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

33. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27

34.

Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

35. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

36. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
console
enable
enable secret
VTY

37. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

38.

Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

39.

Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
media access control

41.

Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

42. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

43.

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?
The data is automatically encrypted.
A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

45. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

46. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

47. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
transport
network

48.

Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
multiaccess
mesh

49. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two networks routing the packets
two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

50. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.

Switch interfaces configuration

2011-09-29T21:01:00.000-07:00

Lab instructions

This lab will test your ability to configure speed, duplex, and vlan settings on a cisco switchinterfaces.

1. Connect to Switch0 using console interface and configure each Switch0 fastethernet switchport for operation. Correct settings are :
- Port type : access port
- Speed : 100 Mbit/s
- Duplex mode : Full Duplex
- Autonegotiation disabled

2. PC “192.168.1.4″ seems to be unable to ping other PCs in the network. Check switch configuration.
TIP : How many broadcast domains are there in this network ?

3. Choose the right cable to connect :
- Switch0 gigabitethernet 1/1 to Switch1 gigabitethernet 1/1
- Switch1 gigabitethernet 1/2 to Switch2 gigabitethernet 1/2

4. Configure those two links as trunk lines without using trunk negotiation between switches

Network diagram

lab2-networkdiagram

Solution

Connect to Switch0 using console interface and configure each Switch0 fastethernet switchport for operation.

Switch(config)#interface FastEthernet0/1

switchport mode access
duplex full
speed 100

Switch(config)#interface FastEthernet0/2

switchport mode access
duplex full
speed 100

Switch(config)#interface FastEthernet0/3

switchport mode access
duplex full
speed 100

Switch(config)#interface FastEthernet0/4

switchport mode access
duplex full
speed 100

PC “192.168.1.4″ seems to be unable to ping other PCs in the network. Check switch configuration.
Switch(config)#interface FastEthernet0/4

Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1
Choose the right cable to connect :
- Switch0 gigabitethernet 1/1 to Switch1 gigabitethernet 1/1
- Switch1 gigabitethernet 1/2 to Switch2 gigabitethernet 1/2

lab2-networkdiagram-solution

Configure those two links as trunk lines without using trunk negotiation between switches

On every interface that has to be configured for trunk operation, configure the following settings

Switch(config)#interface GigabitEthernet1/X

Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

Verify interface operational mode using the “show interface GigabitEthernet1/X switchport command” :

Name: Gig1/2

Switchport: Enabled

Administrative Mode: trunk

Operational Mode: trunk

Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q

Operational Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q

Negotiation of Trunking: On

Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)

Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default)

Voice VLAN: none

Another usefull ios command is “show interfaces trunk” :

Switch#sh interfaces trunk
Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan
Gig1/2 on 802.1q trunking 1

Port Vlans allowed on trunk
Gig1/2 1-1005

Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain
Gig1/2 1

Port Vlans in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned
Gig1/2 1

BCRAN - Building Cisco® Remote Access Networks exam

2010-12-03T20:05:00.000-08:00

BCRAN - Building Cisco® Remote Access Networks exam is a requirement towards obtaining CCNP certification. Skills measured are: Building Cisco® Remote Access Networks exam include topics on Designing and implementing remote access networks using Dial-up, ISDN BRI, PRI; Authentication schemes, Frame Relay, X.25 network configurations. Valid CCNA certification is a pre-requisite for obtaining CCNP certification. The exam also counts toward CCDP Certification.

To be CCNP certified, the following exams need to be successfully completed:

Exam	Exam Code	Study material covering exam objectives
BSCI	642-801	Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks. Note that BSCI replaces Routing Exam (640-603).
Switching Exam	642-811	Building Cisco Multi-layer Switched Network or BCMSN
Remote Access Exam	642-821	Building Cisco Remote Access Networks
Support Exam	642-831	Cisco Internetwork Troubleshooting

Alternatively, one can take the following exams to obtain CCNP certification:

Exam	Exam Code	Study material covering exam objectives
Foundations Exam	642-891 Composite	Building Scalable Cisco Networks,
Foundations Exam	642-891 Composite	Building Cisco Multi-layer Switched Network.
Remote Access	642-821	Building Cisco Remote Access Networks
Support Exam	642-831	Cisco Internetwork Troubleshooting.

Exam cram 0 1 2 3 4 5

1.0 Central site equipment:

Cisco^® recommends any of the following router equipment for central site or Corporate site:

1. Cisco 3600 series: Several models are available including 3620, 3640, and 3660. 36XX series of routers/access servers support variety of connections and protocols. The supported network interfaces include the following:
Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Token Ring, Asynchronous, Synchronous serial, High Speed Serial Interface, ISDN BRI, Channelized T1/ISDN PRI (with and without CSU) , Digital Modems, Analog Modems, Voice, among others.

2. Cisco 4000 series: Cisco 4000 series include Cisco 4500 and Cisco 4700. Each of these have three network module slots. The presence of network module slots allows us to use variety of network modules and protocols. WAN Interface Card (WIC) can also be plugged in.
Cisco AS5X00: Cisco AS5X00 family of access servers support both analog modem and ISDN dial services. It is ideal where large number of remote users want to access the central site using dial up or ISDN services.

3. Cisco 7000 series: These are high end routers that supports combination of Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, ATM, serial, ISDN etc.

The selection of equipment depends on the number of computers situated at the central site, type of applications that are being used, the number of remote connections from branch offices/home offices/telecommuter sites, and the bandwidth requirements.

1.1 Cisco recommends the following router equipment for branch office:

Series 1600: Cisco 1600 series includes Cisco 1601 through Cisco 1605. Each router has one empty network module slot.

Series 1700: Cisco 1700 series include Cisco 1720. It has one 10/100 Ethernet interface and two WAN slots.

Series 2500: Cisco 2500 series include Cisco 2501,2502. These routers are typically fixed configuration with any combination of the Ethernet, Token Ring, synchronous serial, ISDN BRI, and Hub (at least two of these interfaces are present).

Series 2600: Cisco 2600 series includes Cisco 2610, and 2620 routers. Each router has two empty WAN slots and one empty network module slot.

Note that Cisco series 1600, 1700, 2500, and 2600 are recommended for branch office applications.

1.2 The following are recommended by Cisco for Telecommuter site:

Series 700 are easy to configure multiprotocol ISDN access routers.
Series 800 are fixed configuration routers with ISDN BRI and Ethernet interfaces. Cisco recommends these models for home office/telecommuter facility.

Note that Series 700/Series 800/ Series 1000 routers are recommended for home office/telecommuter facility.

2.0 Some important routers series and their configurations:

Series 800 are fixed configuration routers with one Ethernet interface and most models (Only Cisco 805 does not have ISDN BRI interface) have ISDN BRI interface. Cisco805 has Serial interface. Cisco803, 804, and 813 can also accommodate 2 POTS in addition to Ethernet and ISDN BRI.

Series 1000: These are also fixed configuration routers. Cisco1003, Cisco1004 have 1 ISDN BRI + 1 Ethernet interface. Cisco 1005 has one Ethernet + 1 serial (sync/async) interface.
Note that Cisco 700 series, 800 series, and 1000 series are recommended for telecommuter or home office.

Series 1600: Cisco 1600 series includes Cisco 1601 through Cisco 1605. Each router has one WAN slot. Models 1601,15602,1603,1604 have one Ethernet interface, whereas model 1605 has 2 Ethernet interfaces. Support is also provided for ISDN BRI (1603,1604), and serial interface (1601). Cisco1602 has 56/64K CSU/DSU interface.

Series 2500: Cisco 2500 series include Cisco 2501,2502 and several other models. These routers are of fixed configuration (except Cisco2524) with any combination of the Ethernet, Token Ring, synchronous serial, ISDN BRI, and Hub (at least two of these interfaces are present).

Series 2600: Cisco 2600 series includes Cisco 2610, 2611 and 2620, 2621 routers. Each router has two empty WAN slots and one empty network module slot. 2610 has 1 Ethernet interface, whereas 2611 has two Ethernet interfaces. 2620 has 1 Fast Ethernet interface, whereas 2621 has two Fast Ethernet interfaces. The major difference between 2610 and 2620 is that the later provides support for Fast Ethernet.

It is recommended that you practice configuration of routers using ConfigMaker, a free utility available at Cisco Website and free to download and use.

3.0 Router LEDs:

By observing the status of various LEDs on a Cisco router, the health of a router can be found quickly. However, if the LED status is OK, and the problem still remains, you need to consult the manufacturer documentation for troubleshooting. Other options include Cisco Website, CCO Website etc.

Important LEDs on a Cisco 1600 router are as follows:
1. System PWR: Green indicates that the DC power to the router is OK.
2. System OK: Green indicates that the router has booted properly.
3. WIC CD: Green indicates an active connection on the serial port of WAN interface card.
4. WIC ACT: Activity indicates an active connection on the serial port of WAN interface card.
5. LAN ACT: This indicates that data is being sent or received.
6. LAN COL: Frame collisions are indicated by a flashing yellow LED.

4.0 EIA-232 / RS 232:

In EIA/TIA-232 standard, signals can be grouped as below (Pin numbers are given assuming 25 pin connector cable):
A. Data Transfer Group:
TxD (pin 2 on DTE): Transmit Data - This represents data transmit from DTE to DCE (Note the reference is DTE)
RxD (pin 3 on DTE): Receive Data - This represents data received from DCE to DTE (Again note the reference is DTE)
GRD (pin 7 on DTE)
B. Flow Control Group:
RTS (pin 4): Request To Send - Represents that the DTE has buffer space available to receive data from the DCE.
CTS (pin 5): Clear To Send - Represents that the DCE has buffer space available to receive data from DTE.
C. Modem Control Group:
DTR: Data Terminal Ready - Represents that the DTE is ready to receive data.
CD (pin8) - Carrier Detect - Indicates that the DCE has detected carrier from remote DCE.
DSR (pin6): Data Set Ready - It indicates that the DCE is ready to use.
If you are using a 25 pin connector on either end, and the cable is straight through, there is one to one correspondence in the pin connections. That is pin 2 of DTE is connected to pin 2 of DCE, pin 3 of DTE is connected to pin 3 of DCE etc. However, if you are using 25 pin connector at one end and 9 pin connector at the other end, the pin numbers change.

5.0 Null Modem:

In normal course, a DTE device is expected to communicated with a DCE device. In such event, the connections between the DCE and DTE devices is straight. However, if the communication need to happen between two DTEs or two DCEs (Null Modem), the signals need to be rolled. This is achieved by rolling the pins in the cable or in the DB-25 adapter. Typically, a DTE to DTE communication can be achieved by:

1. By connecting DTE to a rolled RJ-45 cable to a straight DB-25 adapter to DTE, OR

2. By connecting a straight RJ-45 cable to a rolled DB-25 adapter to DTE.

Similarly, a DTE to DCE communication can be achieved by:

1. Connecting a DTE to a straight RJ-45 cable to a straight DB-25 adapter to DCE, OR

2. Connecting a rolled RJ-45 cable to a rolled DB-25 adapter to DCE.
Note that rolling the signals twice is same as using straight through cables or adapters without any rolling at all.

Cram Notes 5:Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA

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51.Routing metrics used by IGRP:

Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load.

1. Bandwidth: This is represents the maximum throughput of a link.

2. MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit): This is the maximum message length that is acceptable to all links on the path. The larger MTU means faster transmission of packets.

3. Reliability: This is a measurement of reliability of a network link. It is assigned by the administrator or can be calculated by using protocol statistics.

4. Delay: This is affected by the band width and queuing delay.

5. Load: Load is based among many things, CPU usage, packets processed per sec.

52. The metric limit for link-state protocols is 65,533

53. Following are the possible solutions for preventing routing loops.

1. Split Horizon - based on the principle that it is not useful to send the information about a route back in the direction from which the information originally came.

2. Poison Reverse - A router that discovers an inaccessible route sets a table entry consistent state (infinite metric) while the network converges.

3. Hold-down Timers - Hold down timers prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone bad. Here, if a route fails, the router waits a certain amount of time before accepting any other routing information about that route.

4. Triggered Updates - Normally, new routing tables are sent to neighboring routers at regular intervals (IP RIP every 30 sec / and IPX RIP every 60 sec). A triggered update is an update sent immediately in response to some change in the routing table. Triggered updates along with Hold-down timers can be used effectively to counter routing loops.

54. IP RIP based networks send the complete routing table during update. The default update interval is 30 seconds. IGRP update packet is sent every 90 seconds by default.

55. For IGRP routing, you need to provide the AS (Autonomous System) number in the command. Routers need AS number to exchange routing information. Routers belonging to same AS exchange routing information. OSPF, and IGRP use AS numbers.

56. CDP stands for Cisco Discovery Protocol. This protocol is proprietary of Cisco. CDP runs SNAP (Sub network Access Protocol) at the Data Link Layer. Two Cisco devices running two different Network layer protocol can still communicate and learn about each other.

57. Show IP protocol: This command will show information on RIP timers including routing update timer (30sec default), hold-down timer (default 180sec). It also displays the number of seconds due for next update (this is fraction of update timer). This command also gives the network number for which IP RIP is enabled, Gateway, and the default metric.

1. Show IP route: This command will display the IP routing table entries. In addition, it displays the Gateway of last resort (if one is assigned). It also displays the codes used for various types of routes. Some of the important codes are:

C: directly connected;

S: Statically connected

I : IGRP

R : RIP

2. Show IP interface: This command shows you interface-wise information such as IP address assigned to each interface, whether the interface is up, MTU etc.

3. Debug IP RIP: Debug IP RIP will turn the RIP debugging ON. This will display a continuous list of routing updates as they are sent and received. This leads to lot of overhead, which is the reason that you use "undebug ip rip" to turn-off debugging as soon as you finish with debugging.

58. Cisco router boot configuration commands:

1. boot system - This is a global command that allows you to specify the source of the IOS software image to load. If you configure more than one source, attempts are made to load the IOS from the first command in the configuration to the last successively. If the first fails, the second boot command is used.

2. boot system rom - Loads IOS from ROM.

3. boot system flash - Loads the first file from flash memory.

4. boot system tftp <> - Loads IOS with a filename from a TFTP server.

Cram Notes 4:Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA

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40. There are five different types of passwords:

1. ENABLE PASSWORD - A global command that restricts access to privileged exec mode. This is a non-encrypted password.

2. ENABLE SECRET - Assigns a one-way encryptographic secret password, available in versions 10.3 and up. This secret password is used instead of the enable password when it exists.

3. Virtual Terminal Password (vty password): The virtual terminal password is used for Telnet sessions into the router. The password can be changed at any time. It can be set up when you configure the router from the console. There can be five distinct passwords corresponding to each vty (vty0 to vty4) or there can be a single password for all vtys.

4. Auxiliary Password: Auxiliary password is used to set password to the auxiliary port. This port is used to access a router through a modem.

5. Console Password: Console password is used to set the console port password.

41. Internal memory components of a Cisco router:
. ROM (Read Only Memory); Memory containing micro-code for basic functions to start and maintain the router. ROM is not typically used after the IOS is loaded.

2. RAM/DRAM : stores the running configuration, routing tables, and packet buffers. Some routers, such as the 2500 series, run IOS from Flash, not RAM.

3. NVRAM (Non-Volatile Ram): Memory that does not lose information when power is lost. Stores the system’s configuration file and the configuration register. NVRAM uses a battery to maintain the data when power is turned off.

4. Flash Memory: Stores the compressed IOS (IOS stands for Cisco Internetwork Operating System) image. Flash memory is either EEPROM or PCMCIA card. Flash memory enables you to copy multiple versions of IOS software. This allows you to load a new level of the operating system in every router in your network and then, to upgrade the whole network to that version at an appropriate time.

42. While a packet travels through an Internetwork, it usually involves multiple hops. Note that the logical address (IP address) of source (that created the packet) and destination (final intended destination) remain constant, the hardware (Interface) addresses change with each hop.

43. Default administrative distances some important routing protocols are as below:

Route Source Default Distance

Directly connect Interface 0

Static Route 1

IGRP 100

RIP 120

Unknown 255

An administrative distance of 0 represents highest trustworthiness of the route.

An administrative distance of 255 represents the lowest trustworthiness of the route.

Routed and Routing protocols:

- Routing protocols job is to maintain routing tables and route packets appropriately. Examples of routing protocols are RIP, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF. Routers can support multiple independent routing protocols and can update and maintain routing tables for each protocol independently.

- Routed protocols are used to transport user traffic from source node to destination node. Examples of routed protocols are IP, IPX, AppleTalk.

44. There are three ways a router learns how to forward a packet:

1. Static Routes - Configured by the administrator manually. The administrator must also update the table manually every time a change to the network takes place. Static routes are commonly used when routing from a network to a stub (a network with a single route) network.

The command is

ip route network mask address/interface [distance]

ex: ip route 165.44.34.0 255.255.255.0 165.44.56.5

Here, 165.44.34.0 is the destination network or subnet

255.255.255.0 is the subnet mask

165.44.56.5 is the default gateway.

2. Default Routes - The default route (gateway of last resort) is used when a route is not known or is infeasible. The command is

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 165.44.56.

The default gateway is set to 165.44.56.5

3. Dynamic Routes - In dynamic routing, the routing tables are automatically updated. Dynamic routing uses broadcasts and multicasts to communicate with other routers.

The commands to enable rip are:

router rip

network .

45. To enable the Cisco IOS to forward packets destined for obscure subnets of directly connected networks onto the best route, you use "ip classless" command.

46. There are broadly three types of routing protocols:

1. Distance Vector (Number of hops) - Distance vector routing determines the direction (vector) and distance to any link in the internetwork. Typically, the smaller the metric, the better the path. EX: Examples of distance vector protocols are RIP and IGRP. Distance vector routing is useful for smaller networks. The limitation is that any route which is greater than 15 hops is considered unreachable. Distance vector protocols listen to second hand information to learn routing tables whereas, Link state protocols build routing tables from first hand information. Routers with distance vector protocols send its entire routing table to each of its adjacent neighbors.

2. Link State Routing: Link State algorithms are also known as Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithms. SPF generates the exact topology of the entire network for route computation, by listening to the first hand information. Link State protocols take bandwidth into account using a cost metric. Link State protocols only send updates when a change occurs, which makes them more efficient for larger networks. Bandwidth and delay are the most widely used metrics when using Link-State protocols. EX: OSPF and NLSP.

Benefits of Link State protocols:

1. Allows for a larger scalable network

2. Reduces convergence time

3. Allows “supernetting”

3. Balanced Hybrid - Balanced Hybrid combines some aspects of Link State and Distance Vector routing protocols. Balanced Hybrid uses distance vectors with more accurate metrics to determine the best paths to destination networks. EX: EIGRP.

47. Distance vector protocol depends only on Hop count to determine the nearest next hop for forwarding a packet. One obvious disadvantage is that, if you have a destination connected through two hops via T1 lines, and if the same destination is also connected through a single hop through a 64KBPS line, RIP assumes that the link through 64KBPS is the best path!

48. RIP (and IGRP) always summarizes routing information by major network numbers. This is called classfull routing.

49. Convergence is the term used to describe the state at which all the internetworking devices, running any specific routing protocol, are having identical information about the internetwork in their routing tables. The time it takes to arrive at identical information of the internetwork is called Convergence Time.

50. RIP,RIP2, and IGRP use distance vector algorithms.

RIP2 transmits the subnet mask with each route. This feature allows VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masks) by passing the mask along with each route so that the subnet is

Cram Notes 3:Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA

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31. Ethernet_II has a type field to identify the upper-layer protocol. 802.3 has only a length field and can't identify the upper-layer protocol.

32.To find valid hosts given an IP address (say 156.16.3.52) and a subnet mask (sat a 12-bit subnet). The valid hosts are determined as below:

A 12-bit subnet mask gives us 255.255.255.240; 4094 subnets, each with 14 hosts. (Host addresses of all zeros and all 1s can't be assigned). The 156.16.3.52 is in the 48 subnet range. The valid range is through 49 - 62. 63 is a broadcast address.

Here is how you get the subnet range:

1. Find the subnet mask. In this case, default subnet mask for Class B address is 255.255.0.0. There are additional; 12 bits in the subnet mask. Now the subnet mask looks like:

11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000. This is equal to 255.255.255.240.0.

2. Now, deduct the lowest value octet (Which is non zero), from 256. Here, (256-240)=16.

This is the value that the subnets are incremented. Therefore, you will have hosts with values from:

156.16.3.1 to 156.16.3.14 (All 0s and all 1s host addresses can not be used)

156.16.3.17 to 156.16.3.30

156.16.3.33 to 156.16.3.46

156.16.3.49 to 156.16.3.62 and so on.

It is important to know that subnets are incrementing here by a factor of 16.

33. The following are some important commands that can be used to edit and review command history buffer on a Cisco router. It will be useful to practice these commands.

A : Move to the beginning of the command line

E : Move to the end of the command line

F : Move forward one character, same as using "Right Arrow".

B : Move backward one character, same as using "Left Arrow".

P : Repeat Previous command, same as using "Up Arrow".

N : Repeat Next (more recent) command, same as using "Down Arrow".

B : Moves to beginning of previous word.

F : Moves to beginning of next word.

R : Creates new command prompt, followed by all the characters typed at the last one.

34. The following are some frequently used COPY commands:

COPY RUNNING-CONFIGURATION STARTUP-CONFIGURATION (alternatively, you can use an older version of the command, WRITE MEMORY): This command saves the current configuration to NVRAM. Alternatively, we can issue the command using short form: COPY RUNNING STARTUP - Copies configuration from RAM to NVRAM
COPY STARTUP RUNNING - This command merges configuration from NVRAM to RAM.
COPY FLASH TFTP - Copies current IOS from router flash memory to TFTP server.
COPY TFTP FLASH - Copies image file from TFTP server to flash. This is used to upgrade the IOS image file to a newer version, or if your IOS image becomes corrupt.

35. The banner is displayed whenever anyone logs in to your Cisco router. The syntax is

- "banner motd # " . MOTD stands for "Message Of The Day".

# symbol signifies the start of the banner message to the router. You will be prompted for the message to be displayed. You need to enter "#" symbol at the end of the message, signifying that the message has ended.

36. Router modes of operation:

1. User EXEC mode (Prompt: Router>):- This is the LOWEST level of access. This allows examination of router status, see routing tables, and do some diagnostics. However, you cannot change the router configuration, view the configuration files, or control the router in any way. The prompt in this mode is "Router>".

2. Privileged (enable) EXEC mode (Prompt: Router#):- This mode allows you to have all the privileges of EXEC (user) mode plus commands that enable you to view configuration files, change the router configuration, perform troubleshooting that could potentially disrupt traffic. The default prompt for this mode is "Router#".When you are working in the privileged mode (at # prompt), you can get back to user mode by typing "disable" at the "#" prompt.

3. Global Configuration mode (Prompt: Router (Config)#):-

Global configuration mode allows you to perform tasks that affect the entire router, such as naming the router, configuration of banner messages, enabling routed protocols, and generally anything that affects the operation of the entire router.

When you first switch on a router, you enter Setup mode. Setup mode is different from configuration mode in that setup mode appears when there is no configuration file present. Upon entering setup mode, you can supply some basic configuration parameters to Cisco router.

37. You can use "tab" to complete the command that you are typing.

38. SHOW command is extensively used for seeing the status and configuration information of the router.

Some of the frequently used commands are:

1. SHOW RUNNING-CONFIGURATION -This command displays the router's active configuration file, passwords, system name, and interface settings, interfaces IP addresses etc.

2. SHOW INTERFACE - Shows status and configuration information of the local interfaces. The first line says something like “TokenRing1 is up, line protocol is up”. The first part “TokenRing1 is up” describes the physical layer components such as electrical cabling and signaling are OK. The second part “line protocol is up” means that the router is detecting keep-alive messages. The router may be put into administratively down status, at which point the line would read, “TokenRing1 is administratively down, line protocol is down.”

3. SHOW INTERFACE SERIAL 0 - Shows the serial 0 configuration.

4. SHOW INTERFACES - Displays statistics for all interfaces configured on the switch.

5. SHOW PROCESS - Displays a router’s CPU utilization.

6. SHOW CONFIG - Displays information on the startup configuration.

7. SHOW VERSION - Displays information about the system hardware (RAM/ROM), software version, names of configuration files, and boot-images. This command will also show the current configuration register value.

39. The Cisco router can be configured from many locations.

1. Console port: During the initial installation, you configure the router from a console terminal connected to the "Console port" of the router.

2. Virtual Terminals (vty): A virtual terminal (vty) is typically accessed through Telnet. A router can be accessed through vty after it the initial installation in the network. There are five virtual terminals, namely, vty0,vty1,vty2,vty3,vty4.

3. Auxiliary Port: you can configure a router through auxiliary port. Typically, a modem is used to configure the modem through aux port.

4. TFTP Server: Configuration information can be downloaded from a TFTP server over the network.

5. NMS (Network Management Station): You can also manage router configuration through NMS such as CiscoWorks or HP OpenView.

40. There are five different types of passwords:

1. ENABLE PASSWORD - A global command that restricts access to privileged exec mode. This is a non-encrypted password.

2. ENABLE SECRET - Assigns a one-way encryptographic secret password, available in versions 10.3 and up. This secret password is used instead of the enable password when it exists.

4. Auxiliary Password: Auxiliary password is used to set password to the auxiliary port. This port is used to access a router through a modem.

5. Console Password: Console password is used to set the console port password.

Cram Notes:Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA

2010-12-03T19:46:00.000-08:00

Cram Notes:

11. Deleted (old objective)

12. Telnet, FTP, and TFTP:

1. Telnet is used for terminal emulation that runs programs remotely. Telnet uses TCP/IP protocol.

2. Telnet requires a username and password to access.

3. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a connection oriented protocol. It uses TCP/IP for file transfer. Compare this with TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) that uses UDP (Connectionless protocol). SNMP uses UDP over IP. Tracert, Ping use ICMP as their base protocol. FTP is used to transfer files.

13. Maximum hop count supported by RIP is 15.

14. The port numbers used by different programs are as below:

I. FTP : Port #21

II. Telnet: Port #23

III. SMTP: Port #25

IV. SNMP: Port #161

It is important to know that FTP, Telnet, SMTP use TCP; whereas TFTP, SNMP use UDP.

15. SNMP is part of TCP/IP protocol suite. It allows you to monitor and manage a network from a centralized place by using SNMP Manager software. The systems or devices that provide the responses are called agents (or MIBs). An SNMP agent is any computer running SNMP agent software.

MIB stands for Management Information Base. It is part of SNMP agent database. A MIB records and stores information abut the host it is running on. An SNMP manager can request and collect information from an agent's MIB. Routers are typical MIB agents. SNMP agent generates "trap" messages that are then sent to an SNMP management console, which is a trap destination.

17. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to resolve or map a known IP address to a MAC sub layer address to allow communication on a multi-access medium such as Ethernet. Reverse ARP (RARP) is used to obtain an IP address using an RARP broadcast. RARP can be used to boot diskless workstations over a network.

18. The 7 layers of OSI model are:

1. The Application Layer: Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of desired communication partner and verifying sufficient resources exist for communication. Some of the important application layer protocols are: WWW, SMTP, FTP, etc.

2. The Presentation Layer: This layer is responsible for presenting the data in standard formats. This layer is responsible for data compression, decompression, encryption, and decryption. Some Presentation Layer standards are: JPEG, MPEG, MIDI, PICT, Quick Time, TIFF.

3. The Session Layer: Session Layer is responsible for co-ordinating communication between systems/nodes. The following are some of the session layer protocols and interfaces: a) Network File System (NFS), SQL, RPC (Remote Procedure Call), X-Windows, ASP, DNA SCP.

4. The Transport Layer: The Transport Layer is responsible for multiplexing upper-layer applications, session establishment, and tearing-down of virtual circuits. This layer is responsible for flow control, to maintain data integrity.

5. The Network Layer: There can be several paths to send a packet from a given source to a destination. The primary responsibility of Network layer is to send packets from the source network to the destination network using a pre-determined routing methods. Routers work at Network layer.

6. The Data Link Layer:

Data Link Layer is layer 2 of OSI reference model. This layer is divided into two sub-layers:

A. Logical Link Control (LLC) sub-layer.

B. Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer.

The LLC sub-layer handles error control, flow control, framing, and MAC sub-layer addressing.

The MAC sub-layer is the lower of the two sub-layers of the Data Link layer. MAC sub-layer handles access to shared media, such a Token passing or Ethernet.

7. Physical Layer: The actual flow of signals take place through Physical layer. At Physical layer, the interface between the DTE and DCE is determined. The following are some of the standard interfaces are defined at Physical layer: EIA/TIA-232, EIA/TIA-449,V.24,V.35,X.21,G.703,HSSI (High Speed Serial Interface).

19. Repeaters, Bridges, and Routers:

I. Repeaters work at Physical layer (Layer 1),

II. Bridges and simple switches work at Data Link Layer (Layer 2),

III. Routers work at Network Layer (Layer 3) of ISO Reference Model. 20. CSU / DSU is an acronym for Channel Service Unit / Data Service Unit. CSU/DSU is part of Customer Premise Equipment (CPE). CSU / DSU connect to a Central Office (CO), a telephone switching company located nearer to the customer.

Exam Notes Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA

2010-12-03T19:12:00.000-08:00

About CCNA Exam: CCNA Certification is offered by Cisco®. CCNA tests your knowledge and skills in the areas of simple LAN/WAN switching, Cisco IOS, and routing technologies. Topics include TCP/IP model of internetworking, configuring, and troubleshooting RIP, RIP v2, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF, NAT, Remote Access using some of the most widely used Cisco switches and routers. Please visit the Cisco website for current objectives. Two recommended resources for Cisco certification preparation are Cisco Press "Cisco CCNA Preparation Library" and CCNA by Sybex. There are many others that are very good, but not widely known. CCNA is the foundation exam for CCNP (Cisco Certified Networking Professional). The exam notes is a brief review of important points that help in quick review of key points.

Cram Notes:

1. Internetwork IP addressing:

IP addresses are written using decimal numbers separated by decimal points. This is called dotted decimal notation of expressing IP addresses.

The different classes of IP addresses is as below:

Class	Format	Leading Bit pattern	Network address Range	Maximum networks	Maximum hosts/ nodes
A	N.H.H.H	0	0-126	127	16,777,214
B	N.N.H.H	10	128-191	16,384	65,534
C	N.N.N.H	110	192-223	2,097,152	254

- Network address of all zeros means "This network or segment".

- Network address of all 1s means " all networks", same as hexadecimal of all Fs.

- Network number 127 is reserved for loop-back tests.

- Host (Node) address of all zeros mean "This Host (Node)".

- Host (Node) address of all 1s mean "all Hosts (Nodes) " on the specified network.

2. The range of numbers from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 are used for multicast packets. This is known as Class D address range.

3. Subnetting is nothing but creating networks within a network. Subnetting allows an organization with a single IP address (Class A /ClassB /ClassC) to have multiple subnetworks, thus allowing several physical networks within the organization.

4. How to maximize the number of subnets for a given number of hosts:

Let us take a network ID of 168.8.0.0, and find the maximum number of possible subnets and the corresponding subnet mask that can accommodate at least 500 hosts. The steps involved are outlined below:

I. Find the Class of the IP address, in this case it is a class B network. Class B network has the form N.N.H.H. Therefore, we have a total of 16 bits (two octets) for assigning to internal networks and hosts. The minimum number of host addresses required is 500. The last octet corresponds to 2^8 = 256 hosts which is still less than 500 Hosts.. Therefore, you have to borrow one more bit from the third octet to make it 256*2 = 512 Hosts. This leaves 7 bits in the third octet for assigning subnet addresses. This is equal to 2^7=128 subnets.

II. Write the 7 bits available for subnetting in third octet in the form 11111110 (last bit being the Host bit). The decimal equivalent of the first seven bits is 2^7+2^6+2^5+2^4+2^3+2^2+2^1

= 128 + 64 +32 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 = 254.

III. Therefore, the subnet mask required is 255.255.254.0.

6. How to maximize the number of hosts for a given number of subnets:

Determining the subnet mask that allows maximum number of hosts:

Let us consider an IP address 196.202.56.0 with four subnets and maximize the number of host for the given subnets. The steps involved are as below:

I. The number of subnets required are four. We need to add subnets of all ones and all zeros to this. This is because all zeros and all ones subnets belong to "this subnet" and "all subnets" broadcasts and can not be used. Therefore, the total number of subnets to be reserved is 4+2 = 6.

II. We want to implement maximum possible Hosts. Therefore, we need to minimize the number of subnets. This minimum number is 6 here. If we reserve 2 bits, it results in only 2^2=4 subnets which is less than 6. Therefore, we have to reserve 3 bits for implementing subnets, resulting in 2^3=8 subnets. This is now optimized for maximum number of Hosts (as we have optimized for minimum number of subnets).

III. Write the 3 bits available for subnetting in fourth octet in the form 11100000 (Five 0s being Host bits). The decimal equivalent is 2^7+2^6+2^5

= 128 + 64 +32 = 224.

IV. Therefore, the subnet mask required is 255.255.255.224.

7. 127.0.0.1 is the local loop back address.

8. In an internetwork, the number of distinct IPs' required are

1. One each per client computer

2. One each per server computer

3. One each per router interface.

For example, your network has 2 servers, 26 clients machines, and 2 router interfaces the total number of IP addresses required are 30.

9. Finding the number of Hosts and subnets available for a given subnet mask: For example, let us find the number of hosts and subnets available for an IP 156.233.42.56 with a subnet mask of 7 bits.

a. Class B network has the form N.N.H.H, the default subnet mask is 16 bits long. There is additional subnet mask of 7 bits long.

b. 7 bits of subnet mask corresponds to (2^7-2)=128-2 = 126 subnets.

c. 9 bits (16-7) of host addresses corresponds to (2^9-2)=512-2 = 510 hosts.

Some times, the subnet mask is specified with the bits available in the default subnet mask. In this case the bits available in default subnet mask is 16. Therefore, total number of bits available in the subnet mask are 16+7=23. If you are given a subnet mask of 23 bits long for a class B address, it is understood that it contains the bits from the default subnet mask as well.

Hence, 126 subnets and 510 hosts are available. 10. The directed broadcast should reach all Hosts on the intended network (or subnet, if sub netted). For example, the directed broadcast address for an IP network 196.233.24.15 with default subnet mask is 196.233.24.255. This is arrived by putting all 1s for the host potion of the IP address.

Cisco Certified Voice Professional (CCVP)

2010-11-30T23:28:00.000-08:00

I see there are a lot of materials in my office now to learn about Voice-Over-IP solutions. In addition, my first task now is to help a team that develops Advanced Technology Demo Units Voice and Unified Communications plus Cisco IP Interoperability and Collaboration System (IPICS). Besides, one of my team just finished her Bachelor's Thesis about IP Telephony and Cisco Unified Communications Manager (CallManager), maybe she can explain or teach me something regarding to IP Telephony.

Then, my friend told me that maybe I should take CCVP rather than CCNP since the condition and environment of my office can support me in pursuing CCVP.

The CCVP (Cisco Certified Voice Professional) validates a network professional's ability to implement and operate Cisco Unified Communications solutions in single site and multi-site deployments. Individuals who hold a CCVP certification can help create an IP telephony solution that is transparent, scalable, and manageable. The CCVP curriculum focuses on Cisco Unified CallManager, voice gateways and gatekeepers, switches, Unified IP Phones, and skills to secure the voice communications and ensure voice quality of service. Candidates must pass five secure, proctored certification-quality exams to become a Cisco Certified Voice Professional (CCVP). The prerequisite for the Cisco Certified Voice Professional (CCVP) is CCNA. As voice technologies continue to grow in importance Cisco helps you keep pace with a rapidly changing world.

The CCVP provides network professionals with the knowledge, skills, and credentials necessary to design and implement end-to-end Cisco IP Telephony solutions. The certification content focuses on Cisco Call Manager, QoS, gateways, gatekeepers, IP phones, voice applications and utilities on Cisco routers and Catalyst switches..


Required Exam(s)	Recommended Training
642-642 QoS	Quality of Service (QoS)
642-432 CVOICE	Cisco Voice over IP (CVOICE) AND Cisco Voice over IP Fundamentals (CVF)
642-426 TUC	Troubleshooting Cisco Unified Communications Systems (TUC)
642-444 CIPT 4.1 OR 642-445 CIPT 5.0	Cisco IP Telephony Part 1 (CIPT1 4.1) AND Cisco IP Telephony Part 2 (CIPT2 4.1) OR Cisco IP Telephony Part 1 (CIPT1 5.0) AND Cisco IP Telephony Part 2 (CIPT2 5.0)
642-453 GWGK	Implementing Cisco Voice Gateways and Gatekeepers (GWGK)

So the steps that I should take are Cisco Voice Fundamentals, a 6-hour e-learning course to establish a strong foundation in VoIP and PSTN fundamentals, then CVOICE, followed by CIPT1, GWGK, or QoS in any order. CIPT2 should be completed only after completing CIPT1.

The final course in the series, IP Telephony Troubleshooting is best taken after having completed the other CCVP courses in the curriculum. Those will help me better understand how to install, configure and deploy the various voice products and technologies tested in the CCVP exams.

From the information that I got, there will be 5 exams to pass:

CVOICE is the foundation for it all (the most useful exam)
QoS is not much based on anything; but you need to have some background so it is better after CVOICE (the most interesting one)
GWGK is CVOICE2 (the hardest to master)
TUC has some parts built on CIPT knowledge (the easiest to do)
CIPT is a lot better after GWGK (the most boring)

I will think about CCVP and CCNP, which one should I choose for now...

Configuring Cisco Catalyst Switch

2010-11-30T23:24:00.000-08:00

Configuring Cisco Catalyst Switch

Here I will explain about configuring a Cisco Catalyst Switch

Preparation to Configure a Switch
Basic Switch Configuration:

Management Interface Considerations
Configure Management Interface
Configure Default Gateway
Verify Configuration
Configure Duplex and Speed
Configure a Web Interface

Prepare to Configure the Switch
The initial startup of a Catalyst switch requires the completion of the following steps:
Step 1. Before starting the switch, verify the following:
All network cable connections are secure.
Your PC or terminal is connected to the console port. Your terminal emulator application, such as HyperTerminal is running and configured properly. The figure shows a PC connected to a switch using the console port.
The figure below shows the correct configuration of HyperTerminal, which can be used to view the console of a Cisco device. In here I'm using a USB-to-RS232 converter the driver make a new Serial Port COM 15. If your PC or Laptop already has a Serial Port it should be COM 1.

Step 2. Attach the power cable plug to the switch power supply socket. The switch will start. Some Catalyst switches, including the Cisco Catalyst 2960 series, do not have power buttons.
Step 3. Observe the boot sequence as follows:
When the switch is on, the POST begins. During POST, the LEDs blink while a series of tests determine that the switch is functioning properly. When the POST has completed, the SYST LED rapidly blinks green. If the switch fails POST, the SYST LED turns amber. When a switch fails the POST test, it is necessary to repair the switch.
Observe the Cisco IOS software output text on the console.

The Boot Process on console should be like this:

Copyright (c) 1986-2006 by Cisco Systems, Inc,.

Compiled Fri 28-Jul-06 04:33 by yenanh

Image text-base: 0x0o003000, data—base: OxOOAA2F34

flashfs[l]: 602 files, 19 directories

flashfs[1]: 0 orphaned files, 0 orphaned directories flashfs[1r]: Tota1 bytes: 32514048

flashfs[1]: Bytes used: 7715328

flashfs[1]: Bytes available: 24798720

flashfs[1]: flashfs fsck took 1 seconds.

flashfs[1]: Initia1ization complete....done Initia1izing flashfs.

POST: CPU MIC register Tests : Begin

POST: CPU MIC register Tests : End, status Passed

POST: PortASIC Memory Tests : Begin

POST: PortASIC Memory Tests : End, Status Passed

POST: CPU MIC PostASIC interface Loopback Tests : Begin

POST: CPU MIC PostASIC interface Loopback Tests : End, Status Passed

POST: PostASIC RingLoopback Tests : Begin

POST: PostASIC RingLoopback Tests : End, Status Passed

POST: PostASIC CAM Subsystem Tests: Begin

During the initial startup of the switch, if POST failures are detected, they are reported to the console and the switch does not start. If POST completes successfully, and the switch has not been configured before, you are prompted to configure the switch.

Management Interface Considerations
An access layer switch is much like a PC in that you need to configure an IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway. To manage a switch remotely using TCP/IP, you need to assign the switch an IP address. In the figure, you want to manage S1 from PC1, a computer used for managing the network. To do this, you need to assign switch S1 an IP address. This IP address is assigned to a virtual interface called a virtual LAN (VLAN), and then it is necessary to ensure the VLAN is assigned to a specific port or ports on the switch.

The default configuration on the switch is to have the management of the switch controlled through VLAN 1. However, a best practice for basic switch configuration is to change the management VLAN to a VLAN other than VLAN 1. The implications and reasoning behind this action are explained in the next chapter. The figure illustrates the use of VLAN 99 as the management VLAN; however, it is important to consider that an interface other than VLAN 99 can be considered for the management interface.

Configure Management Interface
To configure an IP address and subnet mask on the management VLAN of the switch, you must be in VLAN interface configuration mode. Use the command interface vlan 99 and enter the ip address configuration command. You must use the no shutdown interface configuration command to make this Layer 3 interface operational. When you see "interface VLAN x", that refers to the Layer 3 interface associated with VLAN x. Only the management VLAN has an interface VLAN associated with it.

Note that a Layer 2 switch, such as the Cisco Catalyst 2960, only permits a single VLAN interface to be active at a time. This means that the Layer 3 interface, interface VLAN 99, is active, but the Layer 3 interface, interface VLAN 1, is not active.

Here is the Cisco IOS CLI Command Syntax:

S1#configure terminal
S1(config)#interface vlan 99
S1(config-if)#ip address 172.17.99.11 255.255.0.0
S1(config-if)#no shutdown
S1(config-if)#end
S1#configure terminal
S1(config)#interface fastethernet 0/18
S1(config-if)#switchport mode access
S1(config-if)#switchport acces vlan 99
S1(config-if)#end
S1#copy running-config startup-config

Configure Default Gateway
You need to configure the switch so that it can forward IP packets to distant networks. The default gateway is the mechanism for doing this. The switch forwards IP packets with destination IP addresses outside the local network to the default gateway. In the figure, router R1 is the next-hop router. Its IP address is 172.17.99.1.

To configure a default gateway for the switch, use the ip default-gateway command. Enter the IP address of the next-hop router interface that is directly connected to the switch where a default gateway is being configured. Make sure you save the configuration running on a switch or router. Use the copy running-config startup-config command to back up your configuration.

Verify Configuration
Here is an abbreviated screen output showing that VLAN 99 has been configured with an IP address and subnet mask, and Fast Ethernet port F0/18 has been assigned the VLAN 99 management interface:

S1#show running-config
...
!
interface FastEthernet0/18
switchport access vlan 99
switchport mode access
...
!
interface Vlan99
ip address 172.17.99.11 255.255.255.0
no-ip route cache
!

Show the IP Interfaces
Use the show ip interface brief to verify port operation and status. Y

The mdix auto Command

You used to be required to use certain cable types (cross-over, straight-through) when connecting between specific devices, switch-to-switch or switch-to-router. Instead, you can now use the mdix auto interface configuration command in the CLI to enable the automatic medium-dependent interface crossover (auto-MDIX) feature.

When the auto-MDIX feature is enabled, the switch detects the required cable type for copper Ethernet connections and configures the interfaces accordingly. Therefore, you can use either a crossover or a straight-through cable for connections to a copper 10/100/1000 port on the switch, regardless of the type of device on the other end of the connection.

The auto-MDIX feature is enabled by default on switches running Cisco IOS Release 12.2(18)SE or later. For releases between Cisco IOS Release 12.1(14)EA1 and 12.2(18)SE, the auto-MDIX feature is disabled by default.

Configure Duplex and Speed
You can use the duplex interface configuration command to specify the duplex mode of operation for switch ports. You can manually set the duplex mode and speed of switch ports to avoid inter-vendor issues with autonegotiation. Although there can be issues when you configure switch port duplex settings to auto, in this example, S1 and S2 switches have the same duplex settings and speeds. The figure describes the steps to configure the port F0/1 on the S1 switch.

Here is the Cisco IOS CLI Command Syntax:

S1#configure terminal

S1(config)#Interface fastethernet 0/1

S1(config-if)#duplex auto

S1(config-if)#speed auto

S1(config-if)#end

S1#copy running-config startup-config

Configure a Web Interface
Modern Cisco switches have a number of web-based configuration tools that require that the switch is configured as an HTTP server. These applications include the Cisco web browser user interface, Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM), and IP Phone and Cisco IOS Telephony Service applications.

To control who can access the HTTP services on the switch, you can optionally configure authentication. Authentication methods can be complex. You may have so many people using the HTTP services that you require a separate server specifically to handle user authentication. AAA and TACACS authentication modes are examples that use this type of remote authentication method. AAA and TACACS are authentication protocols that can be used in networks to validate user credentials. You may need to have a less complex authentication method. The enable method requires users to use the server's enable password. The local authentication method requires the user to use the login username, password, and privilege level access combination specified in the local system configuration (by the username global configuration command).

Here is the Cisco IOS CLI Command Syntax:
S1#configure terminal
S1(config)#ip http authentication enable
S1(config)#ip http server
S1(config)#end

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 9

2010-11-10T22:40:00.001-08:00

1) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
ans:
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical layer
Data-link layer

3) Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
ans:
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4) What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
ans:
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting

5) When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
ans:
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <—

6) What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

7) What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
ans:
Logical Link Control sublayer

Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
ans:
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
ans:
network layer packet

10) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11) Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
ans:
Collisions can decrease network performance.

12) Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
ans:
network access

13) What is the primary purpose of ARP?
ans:
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14) Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
ans:
No collisions will occur on this link.

15) Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
ans:
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16) Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
copied into RAM during system startup
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long

17) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
minimizing of collisions
increase in the throughput of communications

18) What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
ans:
copper UTP
optical fiber

19) Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
ans:
BA

20) After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
ans:
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first

21) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.

Cisco Netacad CCNA 4 Final

2010-11-10T22:38:00.000-08:00

Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
	packet switching
	microsegmentation
	domain name resolution
	path selection
	flow control

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
A static route is established.
The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 has been used as a routing protocol on the network. A new 172.16.2.0/24 network has been added on router R2 and configured under the RIP routing process. When will R1 converge?
after 13 seconds
after 30 seconds
after 180 seconds
after R1 receives triggered updates from R2

Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
a CSU/DSU device
a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output in the exhibit, why can users establish a console connection to this router without entering a password?
The login command was not entered on the console line.
The enable password should be an enable secret password.
No username and password combination has been configured.
Console connections cannot be configured to require users to provide passwords.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to configure a router by copying and pasting the commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, only one of the FastEthernet interfaces is coming up. What is the problem?
Both interfaces are in the same IP subnet.
FastEthernet0/1 does not have a description.
There can be only one FastEthernet interface enabled on a router at one time.
The administrator did not exit to global configuration mode before configuring FastEthernet0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.
A default route must be configured on every router.
Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show running-config output, which option correctly reflects the routes that will be listed in the R2 routing table?

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask can be used to meet the 24 host requirement of the LAN that is attached to Router3?
192.168.0.0/27
192.168.0.64/26
192.168.0.192/26
192.168.0.192/27
A network administrator has been asked to configure a network using a classful IP addressing scheme. Which statement is true about the IP addressing that will be used?
Classful IP addresses can be used only when static routing is configured in the network.
Classful IP addresses allow the network/host boundary to occur at any bit in the 32-bit address.
The subnet mask for classful IP addresses can be determined by the value of the first octet of the IP address.
Classful IP addresses require the subnet mask to be included in the routing updates that are propagated by the classful routing protocols.

Which range of IP addresses will be used by RIPv2, EIGRP, and OSPF routing protocols to send routing advertisements?

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?
The serial interface between two routers is down.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
RIPv1 needs to be configured.

Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
triggered updates
poison reverse
holddown timers
split horizon

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with RIPv2 active on all interfaces. Automatic summarization is in effect. Why does the routing table on R3 include the 209.165.200.228/30 network but not the 172.30.1.0/24 and 172.30.2.0/24 networks?
CIDR is required to route supernets.
There is no default gateway configured.
The 172.30.0.0/16 subnets are discontiguous.
RIPv2 cannot route networks with variable subnets.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
All routes are stable.
Each route has one feasible successor.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is having problems accessing server A. All routers have the same EIGRP configuration as router RTR_A. What should be done so that host A can access server A?
Add the command no auto-summary on all routers.
Change the network statements to include a wildcard mask.
Adjust the EIGRP hello timers to account for the network delay.
Add the command eigrp log-neighbor-changes on all routers.

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
wildcard mask
area ID

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
Set a lower priority on R2.
Configure the routers in the same area.
Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.
Add a backup designated router to the network.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.

Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to
the Fa0/0 interface.
Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IP
address on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.
Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
They are used to determine the complete network topology.
They are used with timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.

CCNA2 Final Mar 2010: CCNA Cisco Routing Protocols and Concepts Final Exam Practice

2010-11-10T22:36:00.000-08:00

1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It connects multiple IP networks.

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain

2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash

flash, TFTP server, ROM

flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash

3. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
Flash
NVRAM
ROM

SDRAM

4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3

6

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.

Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

The static route will not work correctly

6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

The packet will be dropped.

The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.

Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?

The packets will travel via R2-R1.

The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24 network can reach the default gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping?
router R1 Fa0/0 interface

router R1 S0/0/0 interface

router R2 S0/0/0 interface
router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces
router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.

The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

They are aware of the complete network topology.

They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only

11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)

IS-IS

EIGRP

OSPF

RIPv1
RIPv2

13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)

R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1

R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0

R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?

R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.

R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.

Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?

Cisco001
Cisco123

Cisco789

Cisco901

17. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)

DCE

CSU/DSU

LAN switch

modem

hub

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1
Router2
Router3

Router4

19. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.

20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?
Change the routing metric for that route.
Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.
Change the administrative distance for that route.

Remove the route using the no ip route command.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on host A.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.

Which ping will fail?

from R1 to 172.16.1.1

from R1 to 192.168.3.1

from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1

23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1

24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they are unable to connect to the Internet. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?

A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should be the R1 FastEthernet interface

25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10

172.16.0.0/13

172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24

26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?

the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1

the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1

the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

The default gateway is incorrect.
The address is in the wrong subnet.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.

192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?

the IP address of the server

the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol?
private IP addressing
advertising default routes

variable length subnet masks

summarization on major network boundaries

30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface?
172.16.128.154/18
172.16.255.254/18
172.24.64.254/18

172.24.127.254/18

31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?

R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used

33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.

It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down

34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32

B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

A(config)# no router rip

35. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.

What is a possible cause of this problem?

The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.

It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.

It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded

37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)

Paris(config)# router eigrp 100

Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0

Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.

It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?

The JAX router has the wrong process ID.

The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command

40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)

As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.

If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.

If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.

EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?

The packet is discarded.

The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.

42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network?
RIPv1
RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

Automatic summarization is disabled.

The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.

There is one feasible successor in the routing table.
The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface

44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs

45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

46. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)

OSPF interval timers mismatch

administrative distance mismatch

interface network type mismatch

no loopback interface configured
gateway of last resort not redistributed

47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.

49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?

Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.
Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.
Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.

The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process

50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as shown. Because of the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router A fails and is replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will happen?

Router D will be elected DR, and router C will become the BDR.

Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR.
Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR.
Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only the BDR

Final CCNA 4 (H)

2010-11-10T22:33:00.000-08:00

1. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?

PPP
SLIP
xxxHDLC
Frame Relay

2. What is a characteristic feature of a worm?

xxxexploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date

3.An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
xxxIPv4 is incompatible with RIPng

4.Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of a security policy?

xxxIt creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not need altering once it is implemented.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumvention of security measures

5. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

QoS
latency
reliability
xxxconfidentiality

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)

HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint
xxxHQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301
xxxHQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1 initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration?

The password is sent in clear text.
The routers are unable to authenticate.
The username and password are sent encrypted.
xxxA hash value of the username and password are sent.

8. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
xxxThe router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

9. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

xxxThere is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
xxxOne access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
xxxa manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update traffic?

The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.
The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.
xxxThe traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.
The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.

12. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
xxxPort Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

13. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
xxxConfigure dynamic NAT with overload.

14. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
xxxnetwork
data link
physical

15. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?

There is a Layer 2 loop.
xxxThe VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2?

All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
xxxTelnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be permitted any time.

17. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.
xxxDeliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
xxxCreate passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
xxxUse combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

18. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

19. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type
xxxsource IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

20. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
xxxto create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

21. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?

Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
xxxIt will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

22. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?

TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
xxxTraffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

23. At what point in the PPP connection process does the authentication phase occur?

after NCP establishes Layer 3 parameters
xxxbefore LCP begins the link establishment process
after the initial Configure-Request message from the link initiator
after the link initiator receives a Configure-Ack message from the responder

24. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer
data link layer
network layer
xxxapplication layer

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
xxxA congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

26. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

27. Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?

xxxThe VTY lines are not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The username and password are not configured correctly.

28. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

BE
DE
xxxCIR
CBIR

29.Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
xxxDLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

30. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop
DTE cable on router
xxxdemarcation point
demilitarized zone

31. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)

xxxreduced jitter
reduced costs
xxxreduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17". What is the problem?

The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
xxxThe pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

33.A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?

The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
xxxThe service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

34. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

ATM
Frame Relay
xxxHDLC
PPP
SDLC

35. Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?

flow control
error control
xxxauthentication
synchronous communication

36. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?

access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

37. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?

They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
xxxThey support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
xxxThe RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

39. Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)

HDLC
xxxPPP
xxxSLIP
PAP
CHAP

40. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type
interface reset
PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable

41. Which statement is true about NCP?

Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
xxxEach network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request packet that enters interface S0/0/0, and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 172.16.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created by access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
xxxThe router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 command, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.

43. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?

xxxEnable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates

44. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
xxxThe commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

45. Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?

xxxantivirus application
operating system patches
intrusion prevention system
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

46. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask.
A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
xxxA wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly.
A wildcard mask uses a "1" to identify IP address bits that must be checked.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
xxxCheck that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?

Replace the serial cable .
Replace the WIC on RA.
xxxConfigure RA with a clock rate command.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

49. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application
transport
network
xxxdata link
physical

50. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

extended
xxxreflexive
standard
time-based

51. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?

Wi-Fi
satellite
xxxWiMAX
Metro Ethernet

52. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
xxxExtended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

CCNA 3 final test

2010-05-09T19:24:00.000-07:00

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?

interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown

*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11

interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?

*** SC

cannot be determined from the information given

3
A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?

VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.

*** It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.

It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.

It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.

It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.

4
Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)

*** to prevent routing information from being falsified

to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead

to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates

to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing

*** to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source

5
A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?

VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.

VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.

*** VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.

6
Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?

physical

distribution

data link

*** access

core

Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)

RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

8
Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.

*** Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

9
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)

*** RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.

RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.

The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.

*** A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.

*** The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.

RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

10
Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?

access

backbone

*** distribution

core

11
A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support supernetting? (Choose two.)

*** a classless routing protocol

a classful routing protocol

*** OSPF

IGRP

RIP v1

Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?

*** The switch is sending and receiving frames.

The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.

The switch is participating in an election process.

The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.

Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0

*** RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
*** RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1

RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0

14
Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?

switch

bridge

*** router

active hub

15
Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

*** allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host

requires a minimum of two wires

*** reduces the number of collisions

allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions

*** allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions

increases the number of broadcast domains

Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?

Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.

One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.

*** VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.

The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

Configure the hostname on Switch2.

*** Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.

Set the management VLAN password.

*** Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.

*** Establish host connectivity to Switch2.

Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

*** B(config)# router eigrp 1
*** B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?

192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30

192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30

192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30

192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30

*** 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30

20
Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)

Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.

Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.

*** Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.

*** Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.

After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.

*** Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.

Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1

*** Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

22
The following command was added to a router’s configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)

A default route will be created.

*** A static route will be created.

*** Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.

All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.

The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.

Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?

physical

data link

core

access

network

*** distribution

Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?

show vlan ifindex

show vlan id

*** show vlan brief

show running-config

Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was connected to SW-A.

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

26
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?

by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers

by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers

by comparing known routes to received updates

*** by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers

by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports

27
What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

elect a designated switch

use a router to locate a default gateway

*** elect a root bridge

determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

*** R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

29
Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

cut-through

fast-forward

fragment-free

*** store-and-forward

Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?

B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0

*** B(config)# router ospf 1
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

31
What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch is going through POST.

The switch is in the process of initializing ports.

The switch has failed POST.

*** The switch has passed POST and is working properly.

Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?

highest Layer 2 address

highest priority number

highest path cost

lowest Layer 2 address

*** lowest priority number

lowest path cost

33
A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?

add additional hubs

*** replace hubs with switches

replace hubs with access points

add a router to every hub segment

One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.

*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.

The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.

EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.

35
Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)

*** hop count as a metric

classless routing

*** use split horizon

*** maximum hop count is 15

broadcast updates

no authentication

36
When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can be configured on the router? (Choose three.)

*** the network number

subnet mask

*** wildcard mask

process number

area ID

*** autonomous system number

Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem ｂａｓｅd on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?

The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.

*** The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.

The router is not configured for trunking.

The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value

*** change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
*** (config-if)# switchport mode access
*** (config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2

40
Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

*** They can support multiple routed protocols.

They can support only link-state protocols.

They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.

*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.

They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?

dial Corporate 172.16.15.5

line vty 0 4
telnet

telnet Corporate

*** telnet 172.16.15.5

What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?

*** provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure

provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem

provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging

provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers

What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.

access

channel

interVLAN

intraVLAN

*** trunk

Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF routes from the other routers. ｂａｓｅd on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?

A# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

B# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

*** duplicate IP address

mismatched OSPF process IDs

mismatched OSPF timers

mismatched clock rates

Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?

Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.

*** Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.

Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.

No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.

46
Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

eliminates physical loops in network topologies

*** eliminates logical loops in network topologies

can only be used in networks where routers are installed

*** can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design

can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used

47
A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?

192.168.3.192

*** 192.168.3.209

192.168.3.223

192.168.3.225

192.168.3.235

48
Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

*** (config)# interface vlan 1
*** (config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
*** (config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface management vlan
(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1
(config-if)# no shutdown

49
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

*** when a router has discontiguous networks attached

when a router has less than five active interfaces

Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links

*** 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
*** 200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
*** 200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
*** 200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links

CCNA3 Final

2010-05-09T19:22:00.000-07:00

04 March 2010

1
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address
2
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
3
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
4
Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1
Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
5
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
6
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning
Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
7 What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config 172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?
The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
8
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.9 Which two statements are correct about wireless infrastructure components? (Choose two.)
An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network.
A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet.
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dedicated bandwidth to each connected wireless host.
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs.
The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router.
10
Which service should be disabled on a Cisco switch or router to prevent packet sniffers from capturing information about the device?
SSH
VTP
CDP
SNMP
11
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which
hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
12
What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs.
Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation.
The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management.Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment.
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies.
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for a fully-meshed topology.
13 A network administrator implements inter-VLAN routing by configuring subinterfaces on a router. What is one important fact that must considered?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be issued on each subinterface.
The IP address of each router subinterface must be used as the default gateway for hosts on the corresponding VLAN.
14
Which type of frame contains information that is used in the election of the spanning tree root bridge?
BID
LSA
LSU
BPDU
15
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the
switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F
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16
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames with a source address other than 0019.d2e4.d9f7 enters interface Fa0/24?
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The Fa0/24 port LED will be turned off.
The security violation count will be incremented.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly
configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running these
commands?
VLAN 30 will be added to S1, S2, and S3, but not to S4.
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3.
VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed.
19
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
20
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
21
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN
22 When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?
subinterfaces
routing protocol
switched virtual circuits
dynamic trunking protocol
23
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
24 Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot
your computer to establish a connection.
25
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size
the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available.

What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.26
Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
28
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
29
Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-Acomputer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
30
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch
ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000
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31
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the
switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
32
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode.
Configure a default gateway on the switch.Configure the native VLAN on the switch.
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs.
34
Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a “password required, but none set” message
when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
The enable secret password was not set.
S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
35
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface
fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish trunk.
36
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSIDOFDM
WEP
DSSS
37
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
38
Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk? (Choose two.)
Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router.Because interface Fa0/0 requires an IP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs.
Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0 /24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20.The router will use subinterface MAC addresses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface.
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down.
http://www.ccna4u.org 39
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other
switches in the same domain?
client
root
server
transparent
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
41
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
42
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the
switchport mode dynamic auto command.
43
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
Connect each PC directly to a router port.
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
44
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent
attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
45 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
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46
Refer to the exhibit. The commands are entered into switch SW1 as shown, and an 802.1q trunk is successfully established. How does
switch SW1 handle the untagged traffic that is destined for the trunk?
SW1 will drop all untagged traffic.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 1.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 25.
SW1 will send untagged traffic to all VLANs that are configured on the trunk.
47
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
48
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
49
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
SSID
WPA
50 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
51
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal
strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
52 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
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ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 2

2010-05-07T19:50:00.002-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 83%

1)Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical
Data Link

2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection

3)During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
ans:
physical address is added.

4)What device is considered an intermediary device?
ans:
switch

5)Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
ans:
network

6)Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
determine pathways for data
retime and retransmit data signals
manage data flows

7)What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
ans:
the path to use to reach the destination host

8)What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
ans:
presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

9)Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network A — LAN

10)What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages

11)Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
ans:
multiplexing

12)What is a PDU?
ans:
a layer specific encapsulation

13)Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
ans:
an end device

14)Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
ans:
E, F, H, I, J

15)Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
ans:
intermediary

16)Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
ans:
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

17)Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
ans:
LAN

18)What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
ans:
division of segments into packets

19)Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
ans:
originate data flow

20)What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
ans:
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21)Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
ans:
define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
require layer dependent encapsulations

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 4

2010-05-07T19:50:00.001-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 92.7%

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
ans:
This contains a Telnet request.
This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
ans:
0 to 1023

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
ans:
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
ans:
transport

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
ans:
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
ans:
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
ans:
session establishment

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
ans:
source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
ans:
low overhead
connectionless

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
ans:
window size

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
ans:
UDP

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
ans:
source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
ans:
flow control
session establishment
numbering and sequencing

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
ans:
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
ans:
minimal delays in data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
ans:
80

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
ans:
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 5

2010-05-07T19:49:00.001-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
ans:
destination network address

2) What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
ans:
source and destination IP address

3) In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
ans:
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

4)
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
ans:
time-to-live

5) Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
ans:
network portion

6) Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
ans:
192.133.219.1

7) If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
ans:
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

What is the purpose of a default gateway?
ans:
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9) What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
ans:
static

10) When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11) What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
ans:
purpose
geographic location
ownership

12) What is a component of a routing table entry?
ans:
the next-hop address

13) Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
router
firewall

14) What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
ans:
Performance degradation
security issues
host identification

15) Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
ans:
4

16) Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
ans:
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
ans:
10.10.10.6

18) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Replace S2 with a router.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.

19) Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20) What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
consume bandwidth to exchange route information

21) What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
ans:
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 6

2010-05-07T19:48:00.000-07:00

xpect minimum percentage: 100%

1) How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
ans:
32

2) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
ans:
255.255.255.192

3) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?
ans:
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

4) Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
ans:
/27

5) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
ans:
NAT is required for the host A network.

6) What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
ans:
255.255.255.0

7) Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
ans:
This is a network address.

What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
ans:
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
varies in length
is used to forward packets

9) What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
ans:
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

10) A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
ans:
172.16.192.160

11) Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
ans:
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

12) What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router will discard the packet.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

13) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192

14) Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
ans:
larger address space
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption

15) Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
ans:
binary ANDing

16) What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
ans:
expanded addressing capabilities

17) Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90

18) Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19) Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.207 /27

20) What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
ans:
a network

21) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
ans:
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22) Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
servers
network printers
routers

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 7

2010-05-07T19:46:00.000-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?
ans:
802.11

2) What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
ans:
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

3) Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
ans:
nondeterministic
collision environment
first-come, first-served approach

4) Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three)
ans:
non-deterministic
less overhead
collisions exist

5) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

6) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

7) Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link layer?
ans:
MAC, LLC

Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)
ans:
non-deterministic
uses first-come, first-served approach

9)Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
ans:
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

10) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

11) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They are considered physical addresses.

12) A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawin
ans:
physical topology

13) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

14) Which three session options does PPP offer? (Choose three.)
ans:
multilink
compression
authentication

15) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

16) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
ans:
source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP – PC

18) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

19) What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
ans:
support frame error detection

20) What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
ans:
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

21) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

22) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

23) What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
ans:
The media access control protocol can be very simple.

24) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
ans:
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

25) What is a function of the data link layer?
ans:
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

26) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

27) What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
ans:
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

28) Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
ans:
MAC

29) What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

30) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

31) 19.Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
ans:
4

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 8

2010-05-07T19:45:00.000-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 94.3%

1) What are the five elements that make up the fiber-optic cable?
ans:
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket

2) In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
ans:
1 and 2
3 and 6

3) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

4) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

5) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

6) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

9) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

10) What encoding scheme does 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet use?
ans:
4B/5B

11) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

12) In which of the following situations would a crossover cable be used? (Choose two.)
ans:
router to PC
switch to hub

13) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

14) What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
ans:
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

16) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

17) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

18) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

19) What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
ans:
goodput
throughput
bandwidth

20) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

21) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

22) Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
ans:

23) With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
ans:
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

24) What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
ans:
the twisting of the wires in the cable

25) XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
ans:
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP

26) In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
ans:
fiber

27) What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
ans:
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media

28) Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
ans:
backbone cable

29) What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
ans:
more host mobility

30) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 9

2010-05-07T19:43:00.000-07:00